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Which of the following is a direct target of the vestibular ganglion? superior colliculus cerebellum thalamus optic chiasmWhich region of the frontal lobe is responsible for initiating movement by directly connecting to cranial and spinal motor neurons? prefrontal cortex supplemental motor area premotor cortex primary motor cortexWhich exuapyramidal tract incorporates equilibrium sensations with motor commands to aid in posture and movement? tectospinal tract vestibulospinal tract reticulospinal tract corticospinal tractWhich region of gray matter in the spinal cord contains motor neurons that inneivate skeletal muscles? ventral horn dorsal horn lateral horn lateral columnWhat type of reflex can protect the foot when a painful stimulus is sensed? stretch reflex gag reflex withdrawal reflex corneal reflexWhat is the name for the topographical representation of the sensory input to the somatosensory cortex? homunculus homo sapiens postcentral gyms primary cortexThe sweetener known as stevia can replace glucose in food. What does the molecular similarity of stevia to glucose mean for the gustatory sense?Why does the blind spot from the optic disc in either eye not result in a blind spot in the visual field?Following a motorcycle accident, the victim loses the ability to move the right leg but has normal control over the left one, suggesting a hemisection somewhere in the thoracic region of the spinal cord. What sensory deficits would be expected in terms of touch versus pain? Explain your answer.A pituitary tumor can cause perceptual losses in the lateral visual field. The pituitary gland is located directly inferior to the hypothalamus. Why would this happen?The prefrontal lobotomy is a drastic—and largely out-of-practice—procedure used to disconnect that portion of the cerebral cortex from the rest of the frontal lobe and the diencephalon as a psychiatric therapy. Why would this have been thought necessary for someone with a potentially uncontrollable behavior?If a reflex is a limited circuit within the somatic system, why do physical and neurological exams include them to test the health of an individual?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/fightflight) to learn more about adrenaline and the fightor-flight response. When someone is said to have a rush of adrenaline, the image of bungee jumpers or skydivers usually comes to mind. But adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is an important chemical in coordinating the bodys fight-or-flight response. In this video, you look inside the physiology of the fight-or-flight response, as envisioned for a firefighter. His bodys reaction is the result of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system causing system-wide changes as it prepares for extreme responses. What two changes does adrenaline bring about to help the skeletal muscle response?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/nervsystem1) to learn more about the nervous system. As described in this video, the nervous system has a way to deal with threats and stress that is separate from the conscious control of the somatic nervous system. The system comes from a time when threats were about survival, but in the modern age, these responses become part of stress and anxiety. This video describes how the autonomic system is only part of the response to threats, or stressors. What other organ system gets involved, and what part of the brain coordinates the two systems for the entire response, including epinephrine (adrenaline) and cortisol?Read this article (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/strokespell) to learn about a teenager who experiences a series of spells that suggest a stroke. He undergoes endless tests and seeks input from multiple doctors. In the end, one expert, one question, and a simple blood pressure cuff answers the question. Why would the heart have to beat faster when the teenager changes his body position from lying down to sitting, and then to standing?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/pupillary) to learn about the pupillary reflexes. The pupillary light reflex involves sensory input through the optic nerve and motor response through the oculomotor nerve to the ciliary ganglion, which projects to the circular fibers of the iris. As shown in this short animation, pupils will constrict to limit the amount of light falling on the retina under bright lighting conditions. What constitutes the afferent and efferent branches of the competing reflex (dilation)?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/emotions) to learn about physical responses to emotion. The autonomic system, which is important for regulating the homeostasis of the organ systems, is also responsible for our physiological responses to emotions such as fear. The video summarizes the extent of the body’s reactions and describes several effects of the autonomic system in response to fear. On the basis of what you have already studied about autonomic function, which effect would you expect to be associated with parasympathetic, rather than sympathetic, activity?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/3Dmovies) to learn about the side effects of 3-D movies. As discussed in this video, movies that are shot in 3-D can cause motion sickness, which elicits the autonomic symptoms of nausea and sweating. The disconnection between the perceived motion on the screen and the lack of any change in equilibrium stimulates these symptoms. Why do you think sitting close to the screen or right in the middle of the theater makes motion sickness during a 3-D movie worse?Which of these physiological changes would not be considered part of the sympathetic fight-or-flight response? increased heart rate increased sweating dilated pupils increased stomach motilityWhich type of fiber could be considered the longest? preganglionic parasympathetic preganglionic sympathetic postganglionic parasympathetic postganglionic sympatheticWhich signaling molecule is most likely responsible for an increase in digestive activity? epinephrine norepinephrine acetylcholine adrenalineWhich of these cranial nerves contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers? optic, CN II facial, CN VII trigeminal, CN V hypoglossal, CN XIIWhich of the following is not a target of a sympathetic preganglionic fiber? intennural ganglion collateral ganglion adrenal gland chain ganglionWhich of the following represents a sensory input that is not part of both the somatic and autonomic systems? vision taste bar deception proprioceptionWhat is the term for a reflex that does not include a CNS component? long reflex visceral reflex somatic reflex short reflexWhat neurotransmitter will result in constriction of the pupil? norepinephrine acetylcholine epinephrine serotoninWhat gland produces a secretion that causes fight-or flight responses in effectors? adrenal medulla salivatory gland reproductive gland thymusWhich of the following is an incorrect pairing? norepinephrine dilates the pupil epinephrine increases blood pressure acetylcholine decreases digestion norepinephrine increases heart rateWhich of these locations in the forebrain is the master control center for homeostasis through the autonomic and endocrine systems? hypothalamus thalamus amygdala cerebral cortexWhich nerve projects to the hypothalamus to indicate the level of light stimuli in the retina? glossopharyngeal oculomotor optic vagusWhat region of the limbic lobe is responsible for generating stress responses via the hypothalamus? hippocampus amygdala mammillary bodies prefrontal cortexWhat is another name for the preganglionic sympathetic fibers that project to the heart? solitary tract vas o motor nerve vagus nerve cardiac accelerator nerveWhat central fiber tract connects forebrain and brain stem structures with the hypothalamus? cardiac accelerator nerve medial forebrain bundle dorsal longitudinal fasciculus corticospinal tractA drag that affects both divisions of the autonomic system is going to bind to, or block, which type of neurotransmitter receptor? a. nicotinic b. muscarinic c. -adrenergic d. -adrenergicA drug is called an agonist if it ________. blocks a receptor interferes with neurotransmitter reuptake acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor blocks the voltage-gated calcium ion channelWhich type of drug would be an antidote to atropine poisoning? nicotinic agonist anticholinergic muscarinic agonist blockerWhich kind of ding would have anti-anxiety effects? nicotinic agonist anticholinergic muscarinic agonist blockerWhich type of drug could be used to treat asthma by opening airways wider? sympatholytic drug sympathomimetic drug anticholinergic drug parasympathomimetic drugIn the context of a lioness hunting on the savannah, why would the sympathetic system not activate the digestive system?A target effector, such as the heart, receives input from the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. What is the actual difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions at the level of those connections (i.e., at the synapse)?Damage to internal organs will present as pain associated with a particular surface area of the body. Why would something like irritation to the diaphragm, which is between the thoracic and abdominal cavities, feel like pain in the shoulder or neck?Medical practice is paying more attention to the autonomic system in considering disease states. Why would autonomic tone be important in considering cardiovascular disease?Horners syndrome is a condition that presents with changes in one eye, such as pupillary constriction and dropping of eyelids, as well as decreased sweating in the face. Why could a tumor in the thoracic cavity have an effect on these autonomic functions?The cardiovascular center is responsible for regulating the heart and blood vessels through homeostatic mechanisms. What tone does each component of the cardiovascular system have? What connections does the cardiovascular center invoke to keep these two systems in their resting tone?Why does smoking increase the risk of heart disease? Provide two reasons based on autonomic function.Why might topical, cosmetic application of atropine or scopolamine from the belladonna plant not cause fatal poisoning, as would occur with ingestion of the plant?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/neuroexam) that provides a demonstration of the neurological exam—a series of tests that can be performed rapidly when a patient is initially brought into an emergency department. The exam can be repeated on a regular basis to keep a record of how and if neurological function changes over time. In what order were the sections of the neurological exam tested in this video, and which section seemed to be left out?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/neuroexam2) for an introduction to the neurological exam. Studying the neurological exam can give insight into how structure and function in the nervous system are interdependent. This is a tool both in the clinic and in the classroom, but for different reasons. In the clinic, this is a powerful but simple tool to assess a patient’s neurological function. In the classroom, it is a different way to think about the nervous system. Though medical technology provides noninvasive imaging and real-time functional data, the presenter says these cannot replace the history at the core of the medical examination. What does history mean in the context of medical practice?Read this article (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/3word) to learn about a young man who texts his fiancée in a panic as he finds that he is having trouble remembering things. At the hospital, a neurologist administers the mental status exam, which is mostly normal except for the three-word recall test. The young man could not recall them even 30 seconds after hearing them and repeating them back to the doctor. An undiscovered mass in the mediastinum region was found to be Hodgkins lymphoma, a type of cancer that affects the immune system and likely caused antibodies to attack the nervous system. The patient eventually regained his ability to remember, though the events in the hospital were always elusive. Considering that the effects on memory were temporary, but resulted in the loss of the specific events of the hospital stay, what regions of the brain were likely to have been affected by the antibodies and what type of memory does that represent?Watch the video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/2brains) titled The Man With Two Brains to see the neuroscientist Michael Gazzaniga introduce a patient he has worked with for years who has had his corpus callosum cut, separating his two cerebral hemispheres. A few tests are run to demonstrate how this manifests in tests of cerebral function. Unlike normal people, this patient can perform two independent tasks at the same time because the lines of communication between the right and left sides of his brain have been removed. Whereas a person with an intact corpus callosum cannot overcome the dominance of one hemisphere over the other, this patient can. If the left cerebral hemisphere is dominant in the majority of people, why would right-handedness be most common?Watch this short video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/facialnerve) to see an examination of the facial nerve using some simple tests. The facial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression. Severe deficits will be obvious in watching someone use those muscles for normal control. One side of the face might not move like the other side. But directed tests, especially for contraction against resistance, require a formal testing of the muscles. The muscles of the upper and lower face need to be tested. The strength test in this video involves the patient squeezing her eyes shut and the examiner trying to pry her eyes open. Why does the examiner ask her to try a second time?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/2point) to see a quick demonstration of two-point discrimination. Touching a specialized caliper to the surface of the skin will measure the distance between two points that are perceived as distinct stimuli versus a single stimulus. The patient keeps their eyes closed while the examiner switches between using both points of the caliper or just one. The patient then must indicate whether one or two stimuli are in contact with the skin. Why is the distance between the caliper points closer on the fingertips as opposed to the palm of the hand? And what do you think the distance would be on the arm, or the shoulder?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/reflextest) to see how to test reflexes in the abdomen. Testing reflexes of the trunk is not commonly performed in the neurological exam, but if findings suggest a problem with the thoracic segments of the spinal cord, a series of superficial reflexes of the abdomen can localize function to those segments. If contraction is not observed when the skin lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) is stimulated, what level of the spinal cord may be damaged?Watch this short video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/stationtest) to see a test for station. Station refers to the position a person adopts when they are standing still. The examiner would look for issues with balance, which coordinates proprioceptive, vestibular, and visual information in the cerebellum. To test the ability of a subject to maintain balance, asking them to stand or hop on one foot can be more demanding. The examiner may also push the subject to see if they can maintain balance. An abnormal finding in the test of station is if the feet are placed far apart. Why would a wide stance suggest problems with cerebellar function?Which major section of the neurological exam is most likely to reveal damage to the cerebellum? cranial nerve exam mental status exam sensory exam coordination examWhat function would most likely be affected by a restriction of a blood vessel in the cerebral coitex? language gait facial expressions knee-jerk reflexWhich major section of the neurological exam includes subtests that are sometimes considered a separate set of tests concerned with walking? mental status exam cranial nerve exam coordination exam sensory examMemory, emotional, language, and sensorimotor deficits together are most likely the result of what kind of damage? stroke developmental disorder whiplash gunshot woundWhere is language function localized in the majority of people? cerebellum right cerebral hemisphere hippocampus left cerebral hemisphereWhich of the following could be elements of cyto architecture, as related to Brodmanns microscopic studies of the cerebral coitex? connections to the cerebellum activation by visual stimuli number of neurons per square millimeter number of gyri or sulciWhich of the following could be a multimodal integrative area? primary visual coitex premotor coitex hippocampus Wernickes areaWhich is an example of episodic memory? how to bake a cake your last birthday party how old you are needing to wear an oven mitt to take a cake out of the ovenWhich type of aphasia is more like hearing a foreign language spoken? receptive aphasia expressive aphasia conductive aphasia Brocas aphasiaWhat region of the cerebral cortex is associated with understanding language, both from another person and the language a person generates himself or herself? medial temporal lobe ventromedial prefrontal cortex superior temporal gyms postcentral gyrusWithout olfactory sensation to complement gustatory stimuli, food will taste bland unless it is seasoned with which substance? salt thyme garlic olive oilWhich of the following cranial nerves is not part of the VOR? optic oculomotor abducens vestibulocochlearWhich nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles that result in the gag reflex? trigeminal facial glossopharyngeal vagusWhich nerve is responsible for taste, as well as salivation, in the anterior oral cavity? facial glossopharyngeal vagus hypoglossalWhich of the following nerves controls movements of the neck? oculomotor vestibulocochlear spinal accessory hypoglossalWhich of the following is not part of the corticospinal pathway? cerebellar deep white matter midbrain medulla lateral columnWhich subtest is directed at proprioceptive sensation? two-point discrimination tactile movement vibration Romberg testWhat term describes the inability to lift the aim above the level of the shoulder? paralysis paresis fasciculation fibrillationWhich type of reflex is the jaw-jerk reflex that is part of the cranial nerve exam for the vestibulocochlear nerve? visceral reflex withdrawal reflex stretch reflex superficial reflexWhich of the following is a feature of both somatic and visceral senses? requires cerebral input causes skeletal muscle contraction projects to a ganglion near the target effector involves an axon in the ventral nerve rootWhich white matter structure carries information from the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum? cerebral peduncle superior cerebellar peduncle middle cerebellar peduncle inferior cerebellar peduncleWhich region of the cerebellum receives proprioceptive input from the spinal cord? vermis left hemisphere flocculonodular lobe right hemisphereWhich of the following tests cerebellar function related to gait? toe-to-finger station lah-kah-pah finger-to-noseWhich of the following is not a cause of cerebellar ataxia? mercury from fish chinking alcohol antibiotics hereditary degeneration of the cerebellumWhich of the following functions cannot be attributed to the cerebellum? comparing motor commands and sensory feedback associating sensory stimuli with learned behavior coordinating complex movements processing visual informationWhy is a rapid assessment of neurological function important in an emergency situation?How is the diagnostic category of TIA different from a stroke?A patients performance of the majority of the mental status exam subtests is in line with the expected norms, but the patient cannot repeat a string of numbers given by the examiner. What is a likely explanation?A patient responds to the question What is your name? with a look of incomprehension. Which of the two major language areas is most likely affected and what is the name for that type of aphasia?As a person ages, their ability to focus on near objects (accommodation) changes. If a person is already myopic (near-sighted), why would corrective lenses not be necessary to read a book or computer screen?When a patient flexes their neck, the head tips to the right side. Also, their tongue sticks out slightly to the left when they try to stick it straight out. Where is the damage to the brain stem most likely located?The location of somatosensation is based on the topographical map of sensory innervation. What does this mean?Why are upper motor neuron lesions characterized by spastic paralysis?Learning to ride a bike is a motor function dependent on the cerebellum. Why are the different regions of the cerebellum involved in this complex motor learning?Alcohol intoxication can produce slurred speech. How is this related to cerebellar function?Visit this link (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/hormonebind) to watch an animation of the events that occur when a hormone binds to a cell membrane receptor. What is the secondary messenger made by adenylyl cyclase during the activation of liver cells by epinephrine?Visit this link (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/roleofhypo) to watch an animation showing the role of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland. Which hormone is released by the pituitary to stimulate the thyroid gland?Visit this link (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/adrenalglands) to view an animation describing the location and function of the adrenal glands. Which hormone produced by the adrenal glands is responsible for mobilization of energy stores?Visit this link (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/melatonin) to view an animation describing the function of the hormone melatonin. What should you avoid doing in the middle of your sleep cycle that would lower melatonin?Visit this link (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/pancreas1) to view an animation describing the location and function of the pancreas. What goes wrong in the function of insulin in type 2 diabetes?Endocrine glands ________. secrete hormones that travel through a duct to the target organs release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream include sebaceous glands and sweat glandsChemical signaling that affects neighboring cells is called ________. autocrine paracrine endocrine neuronA newly developed pesticide has been observed to bind to an intracellular hormone receptor. If ingested, residue from this pesticide could disrupt levels of ________. melatonin thyroid hormone growth hormone insulinA small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP? The hormone will not be able to bind to the hormone receptor. Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated. Excessive quantities of cAMP will be produced. The phosphorylation cascade will be initiated.A student is in a car accident, and although not hun, immediately experiences pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and rapid breathing. What type of endocrine system stimulus did the student receive? humoral hormonal neural positive feedbackThe hypothalamus is functionally and anatomically connected to the posterior pituitary lobe by a bridge of ________. blood vessels nerve axons cartilage boneWhich of the following is an anterior pituitary hormone? ADH oxytocin TSH cortisolHow many hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary? 0 1 2 6Which of the following hormones contributes to the regulation of the bodys fluid and electrolyte balance? adrenocorticotropic hormone antidiuretic hormone luteinizing hormone all of the aboveWhich of the following statements about the thyroid gland is true? It is located anterior to the trachea and inferior to the larynx. The parathyroid glands are embedded within it. It manufactures three hormones. all of the aboveThe secretion of thyroid hormones is controlled by ________. TSH from the hypothalamus TSH from the anterior pituitary thyroxine from the anterior pituitary thyroglobulin from the thyroids parafollicular cellsThe development of a goiter indicates that ________. the anterior pituitary is abnormally enlarged there is hypertrophy of the thyroids follicle cells there is an excessive accumulation of colloid in the thyroid follicles the anterior pituitary is secreting excessive growth hormoneIodide ions cross from the bloodstream into follicle cells via ________. simple diffusion facilitated diffusion active transport osmosisWhen blood calcium levels are low, PTH stimulates ________. urinary excretion of calcium by the kidneys a reduction in calcium absorption from the intestines the activity of osteoblasts the activity of osteoclastsWhich of the following can result from hyperparathyroidism? increased bone deposition fractures convulsions all of the aboveThe adrenal glands are attached superiorly to which organ? thyroid liver kidneys hypothalamusWhat secretory cell type is found in the adrenal medulla? chromaffin cells neuroglial cells follicle cells oxyphil cellsCushings disease is a disorder caused by ________. abnormally low levels of cortisol abnormally high levels of cortisol abnormally low levels of aldosterone abnormally high levels of aldosteroneWhich of the following responses s not part of the fight-or-flight response? pupil dilation increased oxygen supply to the lungs suppressed digestion reduced mental activityWhat cells secrete melatonin? melanocytes pinealocytes suprachiasmatic nucleus cells retinal cellsThe production of melatonin is inhibited by ________. declining levels of light exposure to blight light the secretion of serotonin the activity of pinealocytesThe gonads produce what class of hormones? amine hormones peptide hormones steroid hormones catecholaminesThe production of FSH by the anterior pituitary is reduced by which hormone? estrogens progesterone relaxin inhibiuThe function of the placental hormone human placental lactogen (hPL) is to ________. prepare the breasts for lactation nourish the placenta regulate the menstrual cycle all of the aboveIf an autoimmune disorder targets the alpha cells, production of which hormone would be directly affected? somatostatin pancreatic polypeptide insulin glucagonWhich of the following statements about insulin is true? Insulin acts as a transport protein, cany in g glucose across the cell membrane. Insulin facilitates the movement of inti acellular glucose transporters to the cell membrane. Insulin stimulates the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose. Insulin stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb glucose into the bloodstream.The walls of the atria produce which hoimone? cholecystokinin atrial natriuretic peptide renin calcitriolThe end result of the RAAS is to ________. reduce blood volume increase blood glucose reduce blood pressure increase blood pressureAthletes may take synthetic EPO to boost their ________. blood calcium levels secretion of growth hormone blood oxygen levels muscle massHormones produced by the thymus play a role in the ________. development of T cells preparation of the body for childbirth regulation of appetite release of hydrochloric acid in the stomachThe anterior pituitary gland develops from which embryonic germ layer? oral ectoderm neural ectoderm mesoderm endodermIn the elderly, decreased thyroid function causes ________. increased tolerance for cold decreased basal metabolic rate decreased body fat osteoporosisDescribe several main differences in the communication methods used by the endocrine system and the nervous system.Compare and contrast endocrine and exocrine glands.True or false: Neurotransmitters are a special class of paracrines. Explain your answer.Compare and contrast the signaling events involved with the second messengers cAMP and IP3.Describe the mechanism of hormone response resulting from the binding of a hormone with an intracellular receptor.Compare and contrast the anatomical relationship of the anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus.Name the target tissues for prolactin.Explain why maternal iodine deficiency might lead to neurological impairment in the fetus.Define hyperthyroidism and explain why one of its symptoms is weight loss.Describe the role of negative feedback in the function of the parathyroid gland.Explain why someone with a parathyroid gland tumor might develop kidney stones.What are the three regions of the adrenal cortex and what hormones do they produce?If innervation to the adrenal medulla were disrupted, what would be the physiological outcome?Compare and contrast the short-term and long-term stress response.Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a mood disorder characterized by, among other symptoms, increased appetite, sluggishness, and increased sleepiness. It occurs most commonly during the winter months, especially in regions with long winter nights. Propose a role for melatonin in SAD and a possible non-drug therapy.Retinitis pigmentosa (RP) is a disease that causes deterioration of the retinas of the eyes. Describe the impact RP would have on melatonin levels.Compare and contrast the role of estrogens and progesterone.Describe the role of placental secretion of relaxin in preparation for childbirth.What would be the physiological consequence of a disease that destroyed the beta cells of the pancreas?Why is foot care extremely important for people with diabetes mellitus?Summarize the role of GI tract hormones following a meal.Compare and contrast the thymus gland in infancy and adulthood.Distinguish between the effects of menopause and andropause on fertility.Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/normallevels) for a list of normal levels established for many of the substances found in a sample of blood. Serum, one of the specimen types included, refers to a sample of plasma after clotting factors have been removed. What types of measurements are given for levels of glucose in the blood?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/doping) to see doctors discuss the dangers of blood doping in sports. What are the some potential side effects of blood doping?Figure 18.13 Are you able to recognize and identify the various formed elements? You will need to do this is a systematic manner, scanning along the image. The standard method is to use a grid, but this is not possible with this resource. Try constructing a simple table with each leukocyte type and then making a mark for each cell type you identify. Attempt to classify at least 50 and perhaps as many as 100 different cells. Based on the percentage of cells that you count, do the numbers represent a normal blood smear or does something appear to be abnormal? Figure 18.13 Leukocytes (Micrographs provided by the Regents of University of Michigan Medical School © 2012)View these animations (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/coagulation) to explore the intrinsic, extrinsic, and common pathways that are involved the process of coagulation. The coagulation cascade restores hemostasis by activating coagulation factors in the presence of an injury. How does the endothelium of the blood vessel walls prevent the blood from coagulating as it flows through the blood vessels?Which of the following statements about blood is true? Blood is about 92 percent water. Blood is slightly more acidic than water. Blood is slightly more viscous than water. Blood is slightly more salty than seawater.Which of the following statements about albumin is true? It draws water out of the blood vessels and into the bodys tissues. It is the most abundant plasma protein. It is produced by specialized leukocytes called plasma cells. All of the above are true.Which of the following plasma proteins is not produced by the liver? fibrinogen alpha globulin beta globulin immunoglobulinWhich of the formed elements arise from myeloid stem cells? B cells natural killer cells platelets all of the aboveWhich of the following statements about erythropoietin is true? It facilitates the proliferation and differentiation of the erythrocyte lineage. It is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It is a hemopoietic growth factor that prompts lymphoid stem cells to leave tire bone marrow. Both a and b are true.Interleukins are associated primarily with which of the following? production of various lymphocytes immune responses inflammation all of the aboveWhich of the following statements about mature, circulating erythrocytes is tine? They have no nucleus. They are packed with mitochondria. They survive for an average of 4 days. All of the aboveA molecule of hemoglobin ________. is shaped like a biconcave disk packed almost entirely with iron contains four glycoprotein units studded with oxygen consists of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme can carry up to 120 molecules of oxygenThe production of healthy erythrocytes depends upon the availability of ________. copper zinc vitamin B12 copper, zinc, and vitamin B12Aging and damaged erythrocytes are removed from the circulation by ________. myeoblasts monocytes macrophages mast cellsA patient has been suffering for 2 months with a chronic, watery diarrhea. A blood test is likely to reveal ________. a hematocrit below 30 percent hypoxemia anemia polycythemiaThe process by which leukocytes squeeze through adjacent cells in a blood vessel wall is called ________. leukocytosis positive chemotaxis emigration cytoplasmic extendingWhich of the following describes a neutrophil? abundant, agranular, especially effective against cancer cells abundant granular, especially effective against bacteria rare, agranular, releases antimicrobial defensins rare, granular, contains multiple granules packed with histamineT and B lymphocytes ________. are polymorphonuclear are involved with specific immune function proliferate excessively in leukopenia are most active against parasitic wormsA patient has been experiencing severe, persistent allergy symptoms that are reduced when she takes an antihistamine. Before the treatment, this patient was likely to have had increased activity of which leukocyte? basophils neutrophils monocytes natural killer cellsThrombocytes are more accurately called ________. clotting factors megakaryoblasts megakaryocytes plateletsThe first step in hemostasis is ________. vascular spasm conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin activation of the intrinsic pathway activation of the common pathwayProthrombin is converted to thrombin during the ________. intrinsic pathway extrinsic pathway common pathway formation of the platelet plugHemophilia is characterized by ________. inadequate production of heparin inadequate production of clotting factors excessive production of fibrinogen excessive production of plateletsThe process in which antibodies attach to antigens, causing the formation of masses of linked cells, is called ________. sensitization coagulation agglutination hemolysisPeople with ABO blood type O ________. have both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes lack both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes have neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies circulating in their blood plasma are considered universal recipientsHemolytic disease of the newborn is a risk during a subsequent pregnancy in which ________. a type AB mother is carrying a type O fetus a type O mother is carrying a type AB fetus an Rh+ mother is carrying an Rh- fetus an Rh- mother is carrying a second Rh+ fetusA patients hematocrit is 42 percent. Approximately what percentage of the patients blood is plasma?Why would it be incorrect to refer to the formed elements as cells?True or false: The buffy coat is the portion of a blood sample that is made up of its proteins.Myelofibrosis is a disorder in which inflammation and scar tissue formation in the bone marrow impair hemopoiesis. One sign is an enlarged spleen. Why?Would you expect a patient with a form of cancer called acute myelogenous leukemia to experience impaired production of erythrocytes, or impaired production of lymphocytes? Explain your choice.A young woman has been experiencing unusually heavy menstrual bleeding for several years. She follows a strict vegan diet (no animal foods). She is at risk for what disorder, and why?A patient has thalassemia, a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal synthesis of globin proteins and excessive destruction of erythrocytes. This patient is jaundiced and is found to have an excessive level of bilirubin in his blood. Explain the connection.One of the more common adverse effects of cancer chemotherapy is the destruction of leukocytes. Before his next scheduled chemotherapy treatment, a patient undergoes a blood test called an absolute neutrophil count (ANC), which reveals that his neutrophil count is 1900 cells per microliter. Would his healthcare team be likely to proceed with his chemotherapy treatment? Why?A patient was admitted to the burn unit the previous evening suffering from a severe burn involving his left upper extremity and shoulder. A blood test reveals that he is experiencing leukocytosis. Why is this an expected finding?A lab technician collects a blood sample in a glass tube. After about an hour, she harvests serum to continue her blood analysis. Explain what has happened during the hour that the sample was in the glass tube.Explain why administration of a thrombolytic agent is a first intervention for someone who has suffered a thrombotic stroke.Following a motor vehicle accident, a patient is rushed to the emergency department with multiple traumatic injuries, causing severe bleeding. The patients condition is critical, and there is no time for determining his blood type. What type of blood is transfused, and why?In preparation for a scheduled surgery, a patient visits the hospital lab for a blood draw. The technician collects a blood sample and performs a test to determine its type. She places a sample of the patients blood in two wells. To the first well she adds anti-A antibody. To the second she adds anti-B antibody. Both samples visibly agglutinate. Has the technician made an error, or is this a normal response? If normal, what blood type does this indicate?Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/heartvalve) to observe an echocardiogram of actual heart valves opening and closing. Although much of the heart has been removed from this gif loop so the chordae tendineae are not visible, why is their presence more critical for the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral) than the semilunar (aortic and pulmonary) valves?Which of the following is not important in preventing backflow of blood? chordae tendineae papillary muscles AV valves endocardiumWhich valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle? mitral tricuspid pulmonary aorticWhich of the following lists the valves in the order through which the blood flows from the vena cava through the heart? tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar mitral, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar aortic semilunar, pulmonary semilunar, tricuspid, bicuspid bicuspid, aortic semilunar, tricuspid, pulmonary semilunarWhich chamber initially receives blood from the systemic circuit? left atrium left ventricle right atrium right ventricleThe ________ layer secretes chemicals that help to regulate ionic environments and strength of contraction and serve as powerful vasoconstrictors. pericardial sac endocardium myocardium epicardiumThe myocardium would be the thickest in the ________. left atrium left ventricle right atrium right ventricleIn which septum is it normal to find openings in the adult? interatrial septum interventricular septum atrioventricular septum all of the aboveWhich of the following is unique to cardiac muscle cells? Only cardiac muscle contains a sarcoplasmic reticulum. Only cardiac muscle has gap junctions. Only cardiac muscle is capable of autorhythmicity Only cardiac muscle has a high concentration of mitochondria.The influx of which ion accounts for the plateau phase? sodium potassium chloride calciumWhich portion of the ECG corresponds to repolarization of the atria? P wave QRS complex T wave none of the above: atrial repolarization is masked by ventricular depolarizationWhich component of the heart conduction system would have the slowest rate of firing? atrioventricular node atrioventricular bundle bundle branches Purkinje fibersThe cardiac cycle consists of a distinct relaxation and contraction phase. Which term is typically used to refer ventricular contraction while no blood is being ejected? systole diastole quiescent isovolumic contractionMost blood enters the ventricle during ________. atrial systole atrial diastole ventricular systole isovolumic contractionThe first heart sound represents which portion of the cardiac cycle? atrial systole ventricular systole closing of the atrioventricular valves closing of the semilunar valvesVentricular relaxation immediately follows ________. atrial depolarization ventricular repolarization ventricular depolarization atrial repolarizationThe force the heart must overcome to pump blood is known as ________. preload after load cardiac output stroke volumeThe cardiovascular centers are located in which area of the brain? medulla oblongata pons mesencephalon (midbrain) cerebrumIn a healthy young adult, what happens to cardiac output when heart rate increases above 160 bpm? It increases. It decreases. It remains constant. There is no way to predict.What happens to preload when there is venous constriction in the veins? It increases. It decreases. It remains constant. There is no way to predict.Which of the following is a positive inotrope? Na+ K+ Ca2+ both Na+ and K+The earliest organ to form and begin function within the developing human is the ________. brain stomach lungs heartOf the three germ layers that give rise to all adult tissues and organs, which gives rise to the heart? ectoderm endoderm mesoderm placentaThe two tubes that eventually fuse to form the heart are referred to as the ________. primitive heart tubes endocardial tubes cardiogenic region cardiogenic tubesWhich primitive area of the heart will give rise to the right ventricle? bulbus cordis primitive ventricle sinus venosus truncus arteriosusThe pulmonary trunk and aorta are derived from which primitive heart structure? bulbus cordis primitive ventricle sinus venosus truncus arteriosusDescribe how the valves keep the blood moving in one direction.Why is the pressure in the pulmonary circulation lower than in the systemic circulation?Why is the plateau phase so critical to cardiac muscle function?How does the delay of the impulse at the atrioventricular node contribute to cardiac function?How do gap junctions and intercalated disks aid contraction of the heart?Why do the cardiac muscles cells demonstrate autorhythmicity?Describe one cardiac cycle, beginning with both atria and ventricles relaxed.Why does increasing EDV increase contractility?Why is afterload important to cardiac function?Why is it so important for the human heart to develop early and begin functioning within the developing embryo?Describe how the major pumping chambers, the ventricles, form within the developing heart.Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/capillaryfunct) to explore capillaries and how they function in the body. Capillaries are never more than 100 micrometers away. What is the main component of interstitial fluid?Listen to this CDC podcast (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/CDCpodcast) to learn about hypertension, often described as a silent killer. What steps can you take to reduce your risk of a heart attack or stroke?The endothelium is found in the ________. tunica intima tunica media tunica externa lumenNervi vasorum control ________. vasoconstriction vasodilation capillary permeability both vasoconstriction and vasodilationCloser to the heart, arteries would be expected to have a higher percentage of ________. endothelium smooth muscle fibers elastic fibers collagenous fibersWhich of the following best describes veins? thick walled, small lumens, low pressure, lack valves thin walled, large lumens, low pressure, have valves thin walled, small lumens, high pressure, have valves thick walled, large lumens, high pressure, lack valvesAn especially leaky type of capillary found in the liver and certain other tissues is called a ________. capillary bed fenestrated capillary sinusoid capillary metarterioleIn a blood pressure measurement of 110/70, the number 70 is the ________. systolic pressure diastolic pressure pulse pressure mean arterial pressureA healthy elastic artery ________. is compliant reduces blood flow is a resistance artery has a thin wall and irregular lumenWhich of the following statements is true? The longer the vessel, the lower the resistance and the greater the flow. As blood volume decreases, blood pressure and blood flow also decrease. Increased viscosity increases blood flow. All of the above are true.Slight vasodilation in an arteriole prompts a ________. slight increase in resistance huge increase in resistance slight decrease in resistance huge decrease in resistanceVenoconstriction increases which of the following? blood pressure within the vein blood flow within the vein return of blood to the heart all of the aboveHydrostatic pressure is ________. greater than colloid osmotic pressure at the venous end of the capillary bed the pressure exerted by fluid in an enclosed space about zero at the midpoint of a capillary bed all of the aboveNet filtration pressure is calculated by ________. adding the capillary hydrostatic pressure to the interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure subtracting the fluid drained by the lymphatic vessels from the total fluid in the interstitial fluid adding tlie blood colloid osmotic pressure to the capillary hydrostatic pressure subtracting the blood colloid osmotic pressure from the capillary hydrostatic pressureWhich of the following statements is true? In one day, more fluid exits the capillary through filtration than enters through reabsorption. In one day approximately 35 mm of blood are filtered and 7 mm are reabsorbed. In one day the capillaries of the lymphatic system absorb about 20.4 liters of fluid. None of the above are true.Clusters of neurons in the medulla oblongata that regulate blood pressure are known collectively as ________. baroreceptors angioreceptors the cardiomotor mechanism the cardiovascular centerIn the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism, ________. decreased blood pressure prompts the release of renin from the liver aldosterone prompts increased urine output aldosterone prompts the kidneys to reabsorb sodium all of the aboveIn the myogenic response, ________. muscle contraction promotes venous return to the heart ventricular contraction strength is decreased vascular smooth muscle responds to stretch endothelins dilate muscular arteriesA form of circulatory shock common in young children with severe diarrhea or vomiting is ________. hypovolemic shock anaphylactic shock obstructive shock hemorrhagic shockThe coronary arteries branch off of the ________. aortic valve ascending aorta aortic arch thoracic aortaWhich of the following statements is true? The left and right common carotid arteries both branch off of file brachiocephalic trunk. The brachial artery is the distal branch of the axillary artery. The radial and ulnar arteries join to form the palmar arch. All of the above are true.Arteries serving the stomach, pancreas, and liver all branch from the ________. superior mesenteric artery inferior mesenteric artery celiac trunk splenic arteryThe right and left brachiocephalic veins ________. drain blood from the right and left internal jugular veins drain blood from the right and left subclavian veins drain into the superior vena cava all of the above are trueThe hepatic portal system delivers blood from the digestive organs to the ________. liver hypothalamus spleen left atriumBlood islands are ________. clusters of blood-filtering cells in the placenta masses of pluripotent stem cells scattered throughout the fetal hone marrow vascular tubes that give rise to the embryonic tubular heart masses of developing blood vessels and formed elements scattered throughout the embryonic discWhich of the following statements is true? Two umbilical veins carry oxygen-depleted blood from the fetal circulation to the placenta. One umbilical vein carries oxygen-rich blood from die placenta to the fetal heart. Two umbilical arteries carry oxygen-depleted blood to the fetal lungs. None of the above are true.The ductus venosus is a shunt that allows ________. fetal blood to flow from the tight atrium to the left atrium fetal blood to flow from the light ventricle to the left ventricle most freshly oxygenated blood to flow into the fetal heart most oxygen-depleted fetal blood to flow directly into the fetal pulmonary trunkArterioles are often referred to as resistance vessels. Why?Cocaine use causes vasoconstriction. Is this likely to increase or decrease blood pressure, and why?A blood vessel with a few smooth muscle fibers and connective tissue, and only a very thin tunica extenia conducts blood toward the heart. What type of vessel is this?You measure a patients blood pressure at 130/85. Calculate the patients pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure. Determine whether each pressure is low, normal, or high.An obese patient comes to the clinic complaining of swollen feet and ankles, fatigue, shortness of breath, and often feeling spaced out. She is a cashier in a grocery store, a job that requites her to stand all day. Outside of work, she engages in no physical activity. She confesses that, because of her weight, she finds even walking uncomfortable. Explain how the skeletal muscle pump might play a role in this patients signs and symptoms.A patient arrives at the emergency department with dangerously low blood pressure. The patients blood colloid osmotic pressure is normal. How would you expect this situation to affect the patients net filtration pressure?True or false? The plasma proteins suspended in blood cross the capillary cell membrane and enter the tissue fluid via facilitated diffusion. Explain your thinking.A patient arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 70/45 confused and complaining of thirst. Why?Nitric oxide is broken down very quickly after its release. Why?Identify the ventricle of the heart that pumps oxygen- depleted blood and the arteries of the body that carry oxygen-depleted blood.What organs do the gonadal veins drain?What arteries play the leading roles in supplying blood to the brain?All tissues, including malignant tumors, need a blood supply. Explain why drugs called angiogenesis inhibitors would be used in cancer treatment.Explain the location and importance of the ductus arteriosus in fetal circulation.Visit this website (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/lymphsystem) for an overview of the lymphatic system. What are the three main components of the lymphatic system?Visit this website (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/immunecells) to learn about the many different cell types in the immune system and their very specialized jobs. What is the role of the dendritic cell in infection by HIV?Visit this website (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/chemotaxis) to learn about phagocyte chemotaxis. Phagocyte chemotaxis is the movement of phagocytes according to the secretion of chemical messengers in the form of interleukins and other chemokines. By what means does a phagocyte destroy a bacterium that it has ingested?Immunity can be acquired in an active or passive way, and it can be natural or artificial. Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/immunity) to see an animated discussion of passive and active immunity. What is an example of natural immunity acquired passively?Which of the following cells is phagocytic? plasma cell macrophage B cell NKcellWhich structure allows lymph from the lower right limb to enter the bloodstream? thoracic duct right lymphatic duct right lymphatic trunk left lymplratic trunkWhich of the following cells is important hi the innate immune response? B cells T cells macrophages plasma cellsWhich of the following cells would be most active in early, anti vital immune responses the first time one is exposed to pathogen? macrophage Tcell neutrophil natural killer cellWhich of the lymphoid nodules is most likely to see food antigens first? tonsils Peyers patches bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue mucosa-associated lymphoid tissueWhich of the following signs is not characteristic of inflammation? redness pain cold swellingWhich of the following is not important in the antiviral innate immune response? interferons natiual killer cells complement microphagesEnhanced phagocytosis of a cell by the binding of a specific protein is called ________. endocytosis opsonization anaphylaxis complement activationWhich of the following leads to the redness of inflammation? increased vascular permeability anaphylactic shock increased blood flow complement activationT cells that secrete cytokines that help antibody responses are called ________. Thl Th2 regulatory T cells thymocytesThe taking in of antigen and digesting it for later presentation is called ________. antigen presentation antigen processingWhy is clonal expansion so important? to select for specific cells to secrete cytokines to kill target cells to increase the numbers of specific cellsThe elimination of self-reactive thymocytes is called ________. positive selection. negative selection tolerance. clonal selection.Which type of T cell is most effective against viruses? Th1 Th2 cytotoxic T cells regulatory T cellsRemoving functionality from a B cell without killing it is called ________. clonal selection clonal expansion clonal deletion clonal anergyWhich class of antibody crosses the placenta in pregnant women? IgM IgA IgE IgGWhich class of antibody has no known function other than as an antigen receptor? IgM IgA IgE IgDWhen does class switching occur? primary response secondary response tolerance memory responseWhich class of antibody is found in mucus? IgM IgA IgE d. IgDWhich enzymes in macrophages are important for clearing inti acellular bacteria? metabolic mitochondrial nuclear lysosomalWhat type of chronic lung disease is caused by a Mycobacterium? asthma emphysema tuberculosis leprosyWhich type of immune response is most directly effective against bacteria? natural killer cells complement cytotoxic T cells helper T cellsWhat is the reason that you have to be immunized with a new influenza vaccine each year? the vaccine is only protective for a year mutation macrophage oxidative metabolism memory responseWhich type of immune response works in conceit with cytotoxic T cells against virally infected cells? natural killer cells complement antibodies memoryWhich type of hypersensitivity involves soluble antigen-antibody complexes? type I type II type III type IVWhat causes the delay in delayed hypersensitivity? inflammation cytokine release recruitment of immune cells histamine releaseWhich of the following is a critical feature of immediate hypersensitivity? inflammation cytotoxic T cells recruitment of immune cells histamine releaseWhich of the following is an autoimmune disease of the heart? rheumatoid arthritis lupus rheumatic fever Hashimotos thyroiditisWhat drug is used to counteract the effects of anaphylactic shock? epinephrine antihistamines antibiotics aspirinWhich of the following terms means many genes? polymorphism polygeny polypeptide multiple alleles