Question
The normalised wavefunction for an atom with atomic mass A=96, magnetically trapped in a 1D harmonic oscillator of frequency 690 Hz can be written:
ψ=(0.179 ψ0)+(0.107 i ψ5)+(h ψ9). As the individual wavefunctions are orthonormal, use your knowledge to work out |h|, and hence find the expectation value for the energy of the atom, in peV. This is at the opposite end of the energy spectrum to the LHC!
ψ=(0.179 ψ0)+(0.107 i ψ5)+(h ψ9). As the individual wavefunctions are orthonormal, use your knowledge to work out |h|, and hence find the expectation value for the energy of the atom, in peV. This is at the opposite end of the energy spectrum to the LHC!
Expert Solution
This question has been solved!
Explore an expertly crafted, step-by-step solution for a thorough understanding of key concepts.
Step by stepSolved in 2 steps with 2 images
Knowledge Booster
Similar questions
- Consider a quantum particle with energy E approaching a potential barrier of width L and heightV0 > E from the right (as shown in image). The wavefunction of the particles in the region x > L is given by ψ = A exp {−i (kx + ωt)} , where A, k and ω are all constants. Use the Gamow factor formalism to calculate an approximate expression for the transmission rate of these particles through the barrier.arrow_forward(Requires integral calculus.) Imagine that a quanton's wavefunction at a given time is y(x) Ae-x/al, where A is an unspecified = constant and a = 35 nm . If we were to perform an experiment to locate the quanton at this time, what would be the probability (as a percent) of a result within ±0.47 a = ±16.45 nm of the origin? The probability is Note: Round the final answer to one decimal place. %.arrow_forwardThe normalised wavefunction for an electron in an infinite 1D potential well of length 80 pm can be written:ψ=(0.587 ψ2)+(0.277 i ψ7)+(g ψ6). As the individual wavefunctions are orthonormal, use your knowledge to work out |g|, and hence find the expectation value for the energy of the particle, in eV.arrow_forward
- Explain each steparrow_forwardThe wave function of a particle at time t= 0 is given by w(0) = (4,) +|u2})), where |u,) and u,) the normalized eigenstates with eigenvalues E and E, are respectively, (E, > E, ). The shortest time after which y(t) will become orthogonal to |w(0)) is - ħn (а) 2(E, – E,) (b) E, - E, (c) E, - E, (d) E, - E,arrow_forward
arrow_back_ios
arrow_forward_ios