In our study of Real Options, we learned about the many benifits of Real Options. Of the below, which is FALSE? O A. Given the option to delay, an investment that currently has a negative NPV can have a positive value. OB. As the level of uncertainty increases, the benefit of waiting is diminished. OC. In a real option analysis, the dividends correspond to any value from the investment that we give up by waiting. O D. By delaying an investment, we can base our decision on new information.

In our study of Real Options, we learned about the many benifits of Real Options. Of the below, which is FALSE? O A. Given the option to delay, an investment that currently has a negative NPV can have a positive value. OB. As the level of uncertainty increases, the benefit of waiting is diminished. OC. In a real option analysis, the dividends correspond to any value from the investment that we give up by waiting. O D. By delaying an investment, we can base our decision on new information.

Essentials Of Investments

11th Edition

ISBN:9781260013924

Author:Bodie, Zvi, Kane, Alex, MARCUS, Alan J.

Publisher:Bodie, Zvi, Kane, Alex, MARCUS, Alan J.

Chapter1: Investments: Background And Issues

Section: Chapter Questions

Problem 1PS

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Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. You invest today only when the NPV of investing today exceeds the value of the option of waiting, which from option pricing theory we know to be always positive. B. When you do not have the option to wait, it is optimal to invest in any positive−NPV project. C. One way to see why you sometimes choose not to invest in a positive−NPV project is to think about the decision of when to invest as a choice between two mutually exclusive projects: (1) invest today or (2) wait. D. When you have the option of deciding when to invest, it is usually optimal to invest only when the NPV is positive but close to zero.
We showed in the text that the value of a call option increases with the volatility of the stock. Is this also true of put option values? Use the put-call parity theorem as well as a numerical example to prove your answer.
We understand standard deviation of returns as a measure of risk and rational investors would like to minimize risk. Notwithstanding this, you may have read that as the standard deviation of returns of the underlying asset increases the value of an option rises. If standard deviation is a measure of risk and investors do not particularly like it, why does it lead to an increase in an option's value?
Suppose stocks X and Y have equal current prices but different volatilities of returns, ax < øy; what would be more expensive: a call option on X or Y? Please discuss.
Assume a utility function of ? = ?[?] − 1 ?? 2. Which statement(s) is/are correct about investors with this utility function? [I] An investor with a higher degree of risk aversion chooses the optimal portfolio with a higher risk premium [II] An investor with a higher degree of risk aversion chooses the optimal portfolio with lower risk [III] An investor with a higher degree of risk aversion chooses the optimal portfolio with a higher sharpe ratio [IV] The extent to which the investor dislikes risk is captured by ? 2 A. [II] only B. [I], [II] only C. [III] , [IV] only D. [II], [IV] only E. [I], [II], [III] only
1. What are the recommended options strategies when you expect the market has extreme (high) volatility?
An investor is considering two possible investment alternatives, Portfolio A and Portfolio B. The expected returns for each are shown in the table below under two different market conditions, along with the investors prediction for the probability of each market condition. The investor's prediction for the probability of each market condition. The investor's utility function can be represented as U(w) - square root (w). If the investor maximises their expected utility, which alternative would they choose? Portfolio A Portfolio B Bull Market Bear Market Portfolio A 16% Portfolio B 4% Probability 0.75 3% 2% 0.25
Consider two put options on the same stock with the same time to maturity. The strike price of Put A is less than the strike price of Put B. Which of the following is true? O It is possible for Put A to be in the money and Put B to be out of the money. O It is possible for Put A to be out of the money and Put B to be in the money. One of the options must be in the money. All of the other answers are correct.
What is the answer to this question? For this question I have seen 2 answers. So im not sure whats right. Answer 1: The most relevant figure is (a) that reflects the risk-return characteristics of stock A and stock B. an effective frontier is called relationship between risk (standard deviation) and expected return. The shape of risk-return features is curved because for each incremental risk incurred there are raising marginal returns. Therefore, for each unit of risk, the standard deviation applied to the portfolio provides an extremely low amount of return. Also we can see that the SD of stock B is higher than that of A. Figure b) is incorrect because the returns don’t rise in proportion to the risk assumed. Figure c) is incorrect since both stocks stock A and stock B are risky, and thus a finite return cannot occur at standard deviation = 0 Answer 2 Answer - Graph B Correlation = Covariance / (Standard deviation of A x Standard deviation of B) Correlation = 0.0014 / (0.032 x 0.044)…
Suppose the solid line represents the capital market line that results from a CAPM equilibrium and the dotted curves represent indifference curves for a given individual. Which of the following is correct if point M corresponds to the market portfolio? Group of answer choices The individual optimally holds only the market portfolio, M. The individual optimally holds portfolio B which can be partially characterized by a long position in the riskless asset. The individual optimally holds portfolio B which can be partially characterized by a short position in the riskless security The individual optimally holds portfolio A which can be partially characterized by a long position in the riskless security. None of the above.
Given the indifference curves above, which of the following statements isCORRECT? A) The investor prefers portfolio A because it has a lower level of risk. B) The investor prefers portfolio B because it has the greatest expected return. C) The investor prefers portfolio E because it is on the indifference curve 2, which is higher than the indifference curve 1, where both portfolios A and B are situated. D) The investor does not prefer one portfolio from another as each portfolio lies on an indifferent curve.
Answer whether each of the following statements is correct and explain your argument. \ (a) According to CAPM, the expected return of a risky asset is larger than the risk free rate. (b) According to CAPM, the expected return of a risky asset increases with its variance. (c) According to the separation property, the optimal risky portfolio for an investor dependson the investor’s personal preference. (d) A less risk-averse investor has a steeper indifference curve for the utility function.

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