j. Let's go back to Eq (2). What is the SI unit of the coeficient ? Does it make 2mw sense to you? k. Show that the square of position operator is (a'a' + â'à + à⪠+ â) 2m (9) 1. Compute (0|#|0) and (0|2²|0). This can be done very efficiently if you use Eq-(8)
j. Let's go back to Eq (2). What is the SI unit of the coeficient ? Does it make 2mw sense to you? k. Show that the square of position operator is (a'a' + â'à + à⪠+ â) 2m (9) 1. Compute (0|#|0) and (0|2²|0). This can be done very efficiently if you use Eq-(8)
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Please do J, K, and L
Expert Solution
Step 1 (j)
According to equation (2)
The unit of Planck's constant is , the unit of mass is kg, and the unit of angular frequency is . So the SI unit of the coefficient will be:
Since the rising and lowering operators and are unitless and the unit of the coefficient is meters therefore the unit of the position operator is meter, which is the expected result.
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