in a Statistical sense, the Single Index Model is best characterized by: the Capital Market Line The Security Market Liner Regression of any asset as a linear function of the Market, plus mean-zero random error A regression of the Market, as a linear function of any given asset, plus mean-zero random error

in a Statistical sense, the Single Index Model is best characterized by: the Capital Market Line The Security Market Liner Regression of any asset as a linear function of the Market, plus mean-zero random error A regression of the Market, as a linear function of any given asset, plus mean-zero random error

Intermediate Financial Management (MindTap Course List)

13th Edition

ISBN:9781337395083

Author:Eugene F. Brigham, Phillip R. Daves

Publisher:Eugene F. Brigham, Phillip R. Daves

Chapter3: Risk And Return: Part Ii

Section: Chapter Questions

Problem 4P

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Similar questions

A plot/graph of the positive relation between systematic risk and expected return is called: O security market line standard deviation and width of the normal distribution O covariance graph O capital asset pricing model
Consider the following linear regression model: (R₁-r)= a; + b(RMkt - rf) + e; The b; in the regression: O measures the deviation from the best fitting line and is zero on aver- measures the sensitivity of the security to market risk. measures the diversifiable risk in returns.
Which of the following is a justification framework for the mean-variance approach? a)if trading is continuous and asset prices follow a multi-dimensional geometric Brownian motion with drift.b)If the investors’ state-specific utility is an exponential function of the assets variance. c)If investors’ preferences for risk are inter-dependent and serially correlated with asset returns.d)If the returns of all assets follow the Mandelbrot distribution.
a)define market risk. b)define delta-hedged position and describe delta hedging. c)describe gamma hedging and vega hedging. d)define and explain value at risk (VAR). e)describe the analytical (variance-covariance) method of calculating VAR, and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.
In the context of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the relevant measure of risk is A. standard deviation of returns. B. beta. C. variance of returns. D. unique risk.
The correlation with Market index, Beta and CAPM Req. Return worked out manually.
It measures the sensitivity of the return of a security to changes in the return of a common index taken to be a proxy of the market portfolio. A. alpha B. sharpe index C. treynor index D. Beta
In the context of the capital asset pricing model, the systematic measure of risk is captured by _________. Group of answer choices unique risk beta standard deviation of returns variance of returns
The Sharpe ratio Select one: O is computed using idiosyncratic risk only is computed using systematic risk only Ois maximized for the risk-free asset is the highest for a minimum variance portfolio is the same along the capital market line
When working with the CAPM, which of the following factors can be determined with the most precision? a. The beta coefficient of "the market," which is the same as the beta of an average stock. b. The beta coefficient, bi, of a relatively safe stock. c. The market risk premium (RPM). d. The most appropriate risk-free rate, rRF. e. The expected rate of return on the market, rM.
a) Discuss the difference between a price-weighted index and a value-weighted index. Give one example for the price-weighted index and one example for the value-weighted index and discuss any problems/advantages associated with the specific indices. b) We assume that investors use mean-variance utility: U = E(r) – 0.5 × Ao², where E(r) is the expected return, A is the risk aversion coefficient and o? is the variance of returns. Given that the optimal proportion of the risky asset in the complete port- folio is given by the equation y* = E , where r; is the risk-free rate, E(rp) is the expected returm of the risky portfolio, o, is variance of returns, and A is the risk aversion coefficient. For each of the variables on the right side of the equation, discuss the impact of the variable's effect on y* and why the nature of the relationship makes sense intuitively. Assume the investor is risk averse. Ao
Consider the following regression Pt * - Pt = .07(1.4) + .4*Pt (3.6) + et where Pt * is Shiller’s ex post price of a stock, Pt is the actual price and t-ratios are in brackets. Explain in words and analytically what the dependent variable Pt * - Pt should be equal to under the efficient markets theory. Hence interpret the regression. Does it support the efficient markets theory?