Can you help me solve this problem?
Imagine you have a beam of spin 1/2 particles moving in the y-direction. We can set up an inhomogeneous magnetic field to interact with the particles, separating them according to their spin component in the direction of the magnetic field, B·Sˆ. This is the Stern-Gerlach experiment
(a) You set up a magnetic field in the z-direction. As the beam of particles passes through it, it splits in two equal beams: one goes up, corresponding to the spin-up particles (those whose Sˆ z eigenvalue was +ℏ 2 ), and the other goes down, corresponding to the spin-down particles. Now, you take the beam that went up and pass it through another magnetic field in the z-direction. Does the beam split? If so, what fraction of the particles go to each side?
(b) Instead, you pass the beam through a z-field, take the beam that went up, and pass it through a magnetic field in the x-direction. Does the beam split? If so, what fraction of the particles go to each side?
(c) You select one of the beams from part b above, and pass it through another magnetic field in the z-direction. Does the beam split? If so, what fraction of the particles go to each side? Compare with part a and explain.
Suppose we start with N particles. We first pass them through a magnetic field in the z-direction, and block the beam that goes down. After this process, you find that only N 2 particles remain. They then go through a magnetic field in the x-z plane, an angle θ from the z-axis, and the beam that goes against the direction of the field is blocked. Then you have a magnetic field in the z-direction again, and block the beam that goes up this time. How many particles come out? Compare with the case without the middle magnetic field.
Trending nowThis is a popular solution!
Step by stepSolved in 4 steps with 4 images
- For an N-electron system, the z component of the total spin angular momentum operator is Sz,total = [$₂.k Σ k If we define the spin eigenstates such that Ŝz,ka(k) = ¹ħ a(k) and Ŝz,kß(k) = −¹/ħ ß(k) then find the eigenvalues of Ŝz,total for the two spin-orbit eigenstates specified below. Note that k labels the electron, and the spatial orbital in which the electron resides is also indicated in the Slater determinants provided. (a) (b) 1 |1sa(1) 1sß(1)| √21sa(2) 1sß(2)| 1 √6 Evaluate Ŝz,total. 1s a(1) 1s (1) 2s a(1)| 1s a(2) 1s (2) 2sa(2) 1s a(3) 1s (3) 2s a(3) Evaluate Ŝz,total. (c) By analogy with orbital angular momentum, Ŝ² = s(s + 1)ħ²y, where represents a spin state, and s is the magnitude of spin (like €). If §² = Ŝx² + y² + ŝ₂², evaluate the 2 2 2 S 2 2 2 result of (§² + ŝ₂²) a(k). Is a (k) an eigenfunction of (§₂² + §₂²) ? y 'yarrow_forwardcould you also explain to me how you come up with question A?arrow_forwardRewrite S₁ S₂ in terms of S², |S₁|², 5₂|² by using the identity |S² = |S₁ + S₂|² = |S₁|² + |5₂|² +25₁ · 5₂. Use this to show that the combined spin angular momentum basis 5² for the electron and proton spins is an eigenstate basis for this dipole interaction.arrow_forward