CIVIL 4210 Spring 23 exams
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School
Auburn University *
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Course
4210
Subject
Chemistry
Date
Apr 3, 2024
Type
Pages
13
Uploaded by gst0006
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
Name Type of Calculator CIVIL 4210 Spring 2023 Exam 1 1.
How much CaO is required to completely neutralize 0.1 N of HCl? a. 0.05 N b. 0.1 N c. 0.2 N d. 0.4 N 2.
How many kg/day of NaOH must be added to neutralize a waste stream generated by an industry producing 50 metric tons (1 metric ton=1,000 kg) per day of sulfuric acid, if 0.2% of the sulfuric acid produced is lost to wastewater? The wastewater flow is 400,000 L/day. a.
81.6 kg/d b.
60.1 kg/d c.
40.8 kg/d d.
20.4 kg/d
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
The following is a clarifier-thickener system to separate non-reactive solids from water with some flows and concentrations given in the table below. Ignore the effects of solids content on density of each stream (i.e., assume density of solids = density of water). A A’ B C D E Stream Flow rate, L/s Solids, mg/L A 180 1000 B 171 5 C 2000 D 90 E A’ 3.
What is Q
E
? a.
9 L/s b.
171 L/s c.
351 L/s d.
441 L/s 4.
What is C
E
? a.
20,000 mg/L b.
995 mg/L c.
3,005 mg/L d.
5 mg/L
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
5.
A 4.0 cm diameter, 1,000 m long pipe carries a flow of 2.00 x 10
-3
m
3
s
-1
. What is the Reynold’s Number (μ=8.50 x 10
-4
kg m
-1
s
-1
)? a.
74,900 b.
1,500 c.
25,200 d.
180,000 6.
According to the most recent City of Auburn Consumer Confidence Report, which of the following is not a source of Auburn’s drinking water? a.
Lake Ogletree b.
City of Opelika c.
Groundwater wells in Auburn d.
Chattahoochee River 7.
What is the approximate residential cost ($/gal) of potable water in Auburn? a. 0.0005 b. 0.005
c. 0.05 d. 0.50 8.
Which of the following does not have an MCL? a. As b. THM c. Mg
d. Pb
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Please note that this exam is two-sided.
Name Type of Calculator CIVIL 4210 Spring 2023 Exam 2 1.
What is the primary purpose of using at least two different granular media (e.g., sand and coal) in a filter? a. Maintain the desired particle gradation (large on top, small on bottom) after backwashing b. Minimize particle abrasion during backwashing c. Remove both Type I and Type II settled particles d. Decrease the head loss by providing alternate flow paths during backwashing 2.
Which one of the following is not true of membrane filters? a.
Experiences reversible fouling b.
Experiences irreversible fouling c.
Requires backwashing d.
Removes dissolved but not suspended solids 3.
What class of organic compounds just had new MCLs proposed? a.
Per- and polyfluroalkyl substances (PFAS) b.
Trihalomethanes (THM) c.
Haloacetic acids (HAA) d.
Natural organic matter (NOM) 4.
Why are utilities increasingly taking steps to minimize the average residence time of water in their distribution system (e.g., removing water storage tanks from service)? a. Increase disinfection efficiency b. Minimize formation of DBPs c. Decrease corrosion d Increase municipal fire-insurance rating 5.
Which of the following would not be an acceptable secondary disinfectant? a. Chlorine b. Chloramines c. Ultraviolent light d. Chlorine dioxide
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
6.
Which of the following would have the highest DO
SAT
? a. Freshwater at 10 ºC b. Freshwater at 20 ºC c. Seawater at 10 ºC d. Seawater at 20 ºC 7.
What is the primary purpose of the “largest civil engineering project on earth” at the Thornton Quarry? a. Reduce the flow of nutrients to Lake Michigan b. Supplement Chicago’s drinking water supply c. Storing combined sewer overflow d. Providing limestone to reverse the flow of the Chicago River 8.
According to the of the American Society of Civil Engineers’ Code of Ethics, which of the following is the first and foremost ethical responsibility of civil and environmental engineers? a.
express professional opinions truthfully and only when founded on adequate knowledge and honest conviction b.
mitigate adverse societal, environmental, and economic effects c.
act as faithful agents of their clients and employers with integrity and professionalism d.
protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public 9.
If the residual disinfectant concentration is decreased by a factor of two, what will have to be done to the contact time to maintain the same level of disinfection? a.
increase contact time by a factor of two b.
decrease contact time by a factor of two c.
increase contact time by a factor of four d.
decrease contact time by a factor of four 10.
What is a state’s 303(d) list? a.
List of the state’s waterbodies that are fishable and swimmable b.
List of the state’s NPDES permits c.
List of the state’s impaired waterbodies d.
List of the state’s POTWs
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
11.
Rapid mixing facilities in a rapid sand filtration plant must be designed to achieve a minimum hydraulic residence time of 30 seconds. For a water production rate of 10,000 m
3
d
-1
, what are the required dimensions of the rapid mixing tanks (length x width x depth in meters)? There should be two tanks in parallel for reliability. Use a square tank configuration with the depth equal to 1.25 times the width. a.
1.11 x 1.11 x 1.39 b.
1.41 x 1.41 x 1.76 c.
1.21 x 1.21 x 1.21 d.
3.51 x 3.51 x 2.61 12.
What mixing power is needed for a 40 m x 30 m x 5 m flocculation basis to achieve a G of 50 s
-1
if the water temperature is 25 ºC (μ=8.9x10
-4
kg m
-1
s
-1
)? a.
1.33 x 10
4
kg m
2
s
-3
b.
2.21 x 10
5
kg m
2
s
-3
c.
8.17 x 10
4
kg m
2
s
-3
d.
4.23 x 10
3
kg m
2
s
-3
13.
What is the theoretical removal efficiency of a 10 μm particle (
s
=2650 kg/m
3
) undergoing Type I settling in a sedimentation basin operating at an overflow rate of 20 m
3
/m
2
/day at 10 ºC (μ=1.31 x 10
-3
kg/m/s)? Recall that the removal efficiency for a Type I particle is the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the settling velocity of the particle to the settling velocity of the smallest particle that is completely removed. a.
30%
b.
18% c.
54% d.
91% 14.
What membrane area is required for a 100 m
3
d
-1
water treatment plant operating at a transmembrane pressure of 50 kPa at 20 ºC (
=1.00x10
-3
Pa s) using membranes with an R
m
of 5 x 10
10
cm
-1
? a.
115 m
2
b.
85 m
2
c.
185 m
2
d.
65 m
2
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Please note that this exam is two-sided.
Name Type of Calculator CIVIL 4210 Spring 2023 Exam 3 1.
Everything else being equal, the volume of a CSTR required to achieve the same degree of treatment as a PFR will always be: a. less than or equal to the volume of the PFR b. less than the volume of the PFR c. greater than or equal to the volume of the PFR d. greater than the volume of the PFR 2.
In the video “Liquid Assets,” which of the following cities was not featured? a.
New York, NY b.
Atlanta, GA c.
Herminie, PA d.
Denver, CO 3.
What is the primary advantage of a COD test relative to a BOD test? a.
cost b.
time c.
waste d.
safety 4.
What is the main advantage of phosphorous removal by chemical precipitation versus biological phosphorous removal? a.
Chemical precipitation is cheaper b.
Chemical precipitation doesn’t require filtration c.
Chemical precipitation produces lower phosphorous levels d.
Chemical precipitation is safer 5.
As discussed in the case study, what was the main new component installed during the University of Mobile’s wastewater system upgrade? a.
Drip irrigation system b.
PFAS monitoring system c.
Nutrient removal system d.
Anaerobic sludge digestion system
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
6.
With regards to the Valley Wastewater Treatment Plant (schematic diagram provided), which of the following is considered tertiary treatment? a.
Equalization basin b.
Grit chamber c.
Sequencing batch reactor d.
Filter 7.
With regards to the Valley Wastewater Treatment Plant (schematic diagram provided), what is the purpose of the equalization basin? a.
Tertiary treatment b.
Biological nutrient removal c.
Maintain a consistent plant flowrate d.
Provide a parallel treatment train 8.
With regards to the Valley Wastewater Treatment Plant (schematic diagram provided), what is the purpose of the baffles in the chlorine contact chambers? a.
Minimize short circuiting to promote plug flow b.
Enhance mixing c.
Promote oxygen transfer d.
Minimize head loss 9.
With regards to the Valley Wastewater Treatment Plant (schematic diagram provided), how many parallel biological treatment trains are there? a.
1 b.
2 c.
3 d.
4 10.
Which one of the following mechanisms is not involved in P removal? a.
P is removed via sludge wasting b.
P is removed via filtration c.
P is removed via chemical precipitation d.
P is removed via the gas phase
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
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Please note that this exam is two-sided.
11.
The effluent from the primary clarifier at a wastewater treatment plant has a flowrate of 12,960 m
3
d
-1
and a BOD
5
of 84 mg L
-1
. What size aeration basin is needed to maintain a food-to-microorganism ratio of 0.4 d
-1
with a MLVSS of 2,000 mg L
-1
? a.
1360 m
3
b.
1050 m
3
c.
820 m
3
d.
575 m
3
12.
If the design criteria for a secondary clarifier is a weir overflow rate of <30,000 gpd/ft, what minimum secondary clarifier diameter is needed at a 5 MGD WWTP with a RAS flow of 1 MGD and a MLSS of 2,000 mg/L? a.
192.8 feet b.
72.8 feet c.
56.4 feet d.
63.6 feet 13.
A wastewater treatment plant is currently disposing of 187,500 kg d
-1
of sludge with a solids concentration of 12%. If a new dewatering process is implemented that is capable of increasing the solids concentration in the sludge to 20%, how much will be saved each year in sludge disposal costs if the sludge disposal rate is $65 per metric ton (1 metric ton = 1,000 kg)? a.
$1.78 million b.
$2.73 million c.
$4.20 million d.
$6.33 million 14.
If a 1 MGD wastewater with an initial alkalinity of 60 mg L
-1
as CaCO
3
requires 100 mg L
-1
as CaCO
3
for nitrification, how much lime must be added per day to complete the nitrification reaction if the lime is 70% CaO(s) by mass? a.
59.3 kg d
-1
b.
84.7 kg d
-1
c.
121 kg d
-1
d.
242 kg d
-1
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
Name Type of Calculator CIVIL 4210 Spring 2023 Final Exam 1.
What is the approximate residential cost ($/gal) of potable water in Auburn? a. 0.0005 b. 0.005
c. 0.05 d. 0.50 2.
Which one of the following is not true of membrane filters? a.
Experiences reversible fouling b.
Experiences irreversible fouling c.
Requires backwashing d.
Removes dissolved but not suspended solids 3.
Which of the following would have the lowest DO
SAT
? a. Freshwater at 10 ºC b. Freshwater at 20 ºC c. Seawater at 10 ºC d. Seawater at 20 ºC 4.
According to the of the American Society of Civil Engineers’ Code of Ethics, which of the following is the first and foremost ethical responsibility of civil and environmental engineers? a.
express professional opinions truthfully and only when founded on adequate knowledge and honest conviction b.
mitigate adverse societal, environmental, and economic effects c.
act as faithful agents of their clients and employers with integrity and professionalism d.
protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public 5.
What is the main advantage of phosphorous removal by chemical precipitation versus biological phosphorous removal? a.
Chemical precipitation is cheaper b.
Chemical precipitation doesn’t require filtration c.
Chemical precipitation produces lower phosphorous levels d.
Chemical precipitation is safer
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
6.
Everything else being equal, the volume of a CSTR required to achieve the same degree of treatment as a PFR will always be: a. less than or equal to the volume of the PFR b. less than the volume of the PFR c. greater than or equal to the volume of the PFR d. greater than the volume of the PFR 7.
Given the water distribution network below If the system is at steady state, what is the flowrate in Pipe AE? a. 0.5 m
3
s
-1
b. 1.5 m
3
s
-1
c. 2.0 m
3
s
-1
d. 5.0 m
3
s
-1
8.
Given the water distribution network below If the system is at steady state, what is the flowrate out of the network at Junction C? a. 0.5 m
3
s
-1
b. 1.5 m
3
s
-1
c. 2.0 m
3
s
-1
d. 5.0 m
3
s
-1
9.
For an ideal settling basin, doubling the water depth while maintaining a constant overflow rate has what effect on the removal efficiency of any given particle size? a. No effect
b. increase x2 c. decrease x2 d. decrease x4
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10.
What is the main difference between primary and secondary wastewater treatment? a. Secondary treatment is designed to remove soluble BOD b. Primary treatment is health based c. Secondary treatment is designed to remove TSS d. Primary treatment is the ideal design developed without regard to cost 11.
If the design criteria for a secondary clarifier is a weir overflow rate of <27,000 gpd/ft, what minimum secondary clarifier diameter is needed at a 5 MGD WWTP with a RAS flow of 1 MGD and a MLSS of 2,000 mg/L? a.
192.8 feet b.
70.7 feet c.
56.4 feet d.
63.6 feet 12.
If the required alum dosage [Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
ꞏ
14 H
2
O, 6 equivalents per mole] in a 5,000 m
3
d
-1
water treatment plant is 30 mg L
-1
, and the raw water has an initial alkalinity of 10 mg L
-1
as CaCO
3
, how much lime must be added per day to neutralize the alum if the lime is 70% CaO(s) by mass? a.
0.0 kg d
-1
b.
20.6 kg d
-1
c.
30.1 kg d
-1
d.
56.3 kg d
-1
13.
At a surface water treatment plant, chlorine is applied at the entrance of the clear well that has a t
10
of 10 min. After exiting the clear well but prior to the first service connection, the water travels through a 4,000 ft pipe at a velocity 5 ft s
-1
. If the required C
ꞏ
t is 28.3 mg L
-1
min, what chlorine residual must be present in the pipeline at the first service connection? a.
1.21 mg L
-1
b.
1.36 mg L
-1
c.
2.13 mg L
-1
d.
2.83 mg L
-1
14.
If 100 mg L
-1
of Na
3
PO
4
(s) is dissolved in water via the reaction below, what is the resulting concentration of PO
4
? +
3-
3
4
4
Na PO (s) 3Na
+ PO
a. 19 mg L
-1
PO
4
-P
b. 25 mg L
-1
PO
4
-P c. 58 mg L
-1
PO
4
-P d. 100 mg L
-1
PO
4
-P
Related Questions
When 100. mL of 1.0 M HCl is added to
a 2.0 g piece of CACO3, CO2 is produced
at a certain rate. Which of the changes
below will NOT increase the rate of this
reaction?
a. Adding 100, mL of 2.0 M HCl in
place of 100. mL of 1.0 M HCI.
b. Heating the 100. mL of 1.0 M
HCl before adding it to the
СаСОз.
c. Adding 100. mL of 1.0 M HCl to
2.0 g of powdered CaCO3.
d. Adding 150. mL of 1.0 M HCl in
place of 100. mL of 1.0 M HCI.
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Help with 18 please.
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A 20.0 mL sample of an HCl solution is titrated with 27.4 mL of a standard solution of Ba(OH)2. The concentration of the standard is 0.0154 M. What is the molarity of the HCl?
a. 4.22 M
b. 42.02 M
c. 0.0422 M
d. 0.422 M
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Solubility of PbCl2 in water is 0.0150 g/L at 25 oC. What is the molar concentration of
Cl- ion in the solution at the same temperature?
A.
3.30 x 10-3 M
B.
5.40 x 10-5 M
C.
1.08 x 10-4 M
D.
3.10 x 10-4 M
E.
1.10 x 10-2
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At a certain temperature, the solubility of Pbl, in water is 1.5 x 10-3 mol /liter.
Based on that, the Ksp Pbl2 is
Oa. 6.75 x 10-8
b. 4.50 x 10-8
c. 4.50 x 10-9
O d. 3.37 x 10-9
e. 1.35 x 10-8
e
Next page
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A 1.2525 g sample of canned tuna was analyzed by the Kjeldahl method: 30.25 mL of 0.1200 N HCl was required to titrate the liberated ammonia. Calculate the % N in the sample.
a. 3.25 %
b. 5.32 %
c. 4.06 %
d. 7.46 %
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A 1.00 liter solution contains 0.52 moles hypochlorous acid and 0.40 moles potassium
hypochlorite.
If 0.20 moles of hydrobromic acid are added to this system, indicate whether the
following statements are true or false.
(Assume that the volume does not change upon the addition of hydrobromic
acid.)
A. The number of moles of HC1O will decrease.
ⒸB. The number of moles of C10¯ will remain the same.
C. The equilibrium concentration of H3O+ will decrease.
ⒸD. The pH will remain the same.
[HCIO]
[C10¯]
ⒸE. The ratio of
will increase.
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what’s the answer for this
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A 1.047 g sample of canned tuna was analyzed by the Kjeldahl method; 24.61 mL of 0.1130 M HCI were required to
titrate the liberated ammonia. Calculate the percentage of nitrogen in the sample.
1. 03.89%
2. 0299%
3. 039 9%
4. 09.38%
5. 02.10%
Previous
Next
CS
hp
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36. Titrating a 10.00 mL aliquot of 0.150 M NaOH with 0.120 M HCl will require
a.
8.00 mL
b.
0.18 mL
c.
18.00 mL
d.
12.50 mL
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A 60mL HCl solution is titrated with 25mL of a 0.60M KOH solution. What is the concentration of the HCl solution?
a. 0.25 mol/L
b. 1.56 mol/L
c. 0.65 mol/L
d. 2.5 mol/L
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A 1 liter solution contains 0.514 M hydrocyanic acid
and 0.386 M potassium cyanide. What will the addition
of 0.193 moles of hydrobromic acid do? (Assume that
the volume does not change upon the addition of
hydrobromic acid.)
*More than one answer is accepted.
A. Raise the pH slightly
B. Lower the pH slightly
C. Raise the pH by several units
D. Lower the pH by several units
E. Not change the pH
F. Exceed the buffer capacity
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ENB Assume the densities of all solutions are 1.0 g/ml and their specific heat capacities 4.184 J/g.
Experime
The enthalpy change of neutralization
Part I
3
NH4OH(aq) +
HCl(aq)-
NH4CI(aq) +
H2O(E)
2.1
Equation of reaction:
2.0 M HCI
2.0 M NH.OH
Volume
Number of moles 0.05
25 ml
25 ml
0.05
Temperature
15 °C
15 °C
eaction
Initial Temperature,T
Final Temperature, T
Change in temperature, AT
15 °C
16.5 °C
1.5 °C
Calculation of q- in J (q- = - qsa)
2.2
What is the enthalpy change (AH)
in kJ.mol, when 1 mol of acid is
2.3
neutralized?
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Consider the reaction NH3(aq) + H₂O(2) NH4+ (aq) + OH(aq). Kb for NH3 is 1.8 x 10-5 at 25°C. What is Ka for the NH4* ion at 25°C?
O a. 9.2 x 10-8
O b. 1.8 x 10-5
O c.7.2 x 10-12
O d. 5.6 x 10-10
5.6 × 104
O e.
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Can you help me filling all the table with this data please I really appreciate it! Titration of Acetic Acid and Vinegar - Topic
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In an experiment, a 500.0 mL solution of approximately 0.250 M KOH (56.106 g/mol) solution was prepared. The actual concentration was then determined by standardizing against 1.0050 g of KHP(204.22 g/mol), which required 19.45 mL of the KOH solution. One mole of KOH reacts with one-mole ofKHP.a.How would you prepare the KOH solution?b.After standardization, what will be the exact molarity of the KOH solution?c.The KOH solution was then used to analyze a sample containing oxalic acid, H2C2O4 (90.03g/mol). If the titration required 11.33 mL KOH, how many grams of oxalic acid is in the sample? Oxalic acid releases two protons during the reaction.
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5. If magnesium hydroxide were used instead of
NaOH, how many moles would it take to
combine with three moles of KHP? Explain.
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5. Titrate 35.00 mL of 0.156 M KHP solution requires 25.75 mL of an unknown NaOH solution to reach the equivalence point. What’s the molarity of this unknown NaOH solution?
Group of answer choices
A. 2.01
B, 0.235
C. 1.203
D, 0.212
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The H+ Molarity of a 0.0150 M HNO3(aq) is estimated to be
Note that HNO3 is a strong acid.
A. 0.010
OB. 0.0150
O C. 1.0
OD. 1.5
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A 25.0mL acetic acid sample was titrated using exactly 69.72 mL of a 0.30M sodium hydroxide solution until the endpoint was achieved. What is the molar concentration of the acid sample?
A. 0.02 M
B. 0.98 M
C. 1.95 M
D. 3.90 M
E. 9.76 M
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1. Zia titrates 20.00 mL of an HCl(aq) solution that has an unknown concentration with 0.1240 M NaOH(aq).
The equivalence point is reached after adding 25.46 mL of NaOH(aq).
a. Write out the complete balanced equation for the reaction that occurs in this titration.
b. How many moles of NaOH were added to the HCl solution?
c. How many moles of HCl were in the original 20.00 mL solution?
d. What was the concentration of HCl in the original 20.0 mL solution?
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If there are 2.0 mg of Pb+2 ions in 1.0 L of water, what is the concentration of lead in ppm?
a. 200 ppm
b. 20. ppm
c. 0.0020 ppm
d. 2.0 ppm
e. 0.20 ppm
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Related Questions
- When 100. mL of 1.0 M HCl is added to a 2.0 g piece of CACO3, CO2 is produced at a certain rate. Which of the changes below will NOT increase the rate of this reaction? a. Adding 100, mL of 2.0 M HCl in place of 100. mL of 1.0 M HCI. b. Heating the 100. mL of 1.0 M HCl before adding it to the СаСОз. c. Adding 100. mL of 1.0 M HCl to 2.0 g of powdered CaCO3. d. Adding 150. mL of 1.0 M HCl in place of 100. mL of 1.0 M HCI.arrow_forwardHelp with 18 please.arrow_forwardA 20.0 mL sample of an HCl solution is titrated with 27.4 mL of a standard solution of Ba(OH)2. The concentration of the standard is 0.0154 M. What is the molarity of the HCl? a. 4.22 M b. 42.02 M c. 0.0422 M d. 0.422 Marrow_forward
- Solubility of PbCl2 in water is 0.0150 g/L at 25 oC. What is the molar concentration of Cl- ion in the solution at the same temperature? A. 3.30 x 10-3 M B. 5.40 x 10-5 M C. 1.08 x 10-4 M D. 3.10 x 10-4 M E. 1.10 x 10-2arrow_forwardAt a certain temperature, the solubility of Pbl, in water is 1.5 x 10-3 mol /liter. Based on that, the Ksp Pbl2 is Oa. 6.75 x 10-8 b. 4.50 x 10-8 c. 4.50 x 10-9 O d. 3.37 x 10-9 e. 1.35 x 10-8 e Next pagearrow_forwardA 1.2525 g sample of canned tuna was analyzed by the Kjeldahl method: 30.25 mL of 0.1200 N HCl was required to titrate the liberated ammonia. Calculate the % N in the sample. a. 3.25 % b. 5.32 % c. 4.06 % d. 7.46 %arrow_forward
- A 1.00 liter solution contains 0.52 moles hypochlorous acid and 0.40 moles potassium hypochlorite. If 0.20 moles of hydrobromic acid are added to this system, indicate whether the following statements are true or false. (Assume that the volume does not change upon the addition of hydrobromic acid.) A. The number of moles of HC1O will decrease. ⒸB. The number of moles of C10¯ will remain the same. C. The equilibrium concentration of H3O+ will decrease. ⒸD. The pH will remain the same. [HCIO] [C10¯] ⒸE. The ratio of will increase.arrow_forwardwhat’s the answer for thisarrow_forwardA 1.047 g sample of canned tuna was analyzed by the Kjeldahl method; 24.61 mL of 0.1130 M HCI were required to titrate the liberated ammonia. Calculate the percentage of nitrogen in the sample. 1. 03.89% 2. 0299% 3. 039 9% 4. 09.38% 5. 02.10% Previous Next CS hparrow_forward
- 36. Titrating a 10.00 mL aliquot of 0.150 M NaOH with 0.120 M HCl will require a. 8.00 mL b. 0.18 mL c. 18.00 mL d. 12.50 mLarrow_forwardA 60mL HCl solution is titrated with 25mL of a 0.60M KOH solution. What is the concentration of the HCl solution? a. 0.25 mol/L b. 1.56 mol/L c. 0.65 mol/L d. 2.5 mol/Larrow_forwardA 1 liter solution contains 0.514 M hydrocyanic acid and 0.386 M potassium cyanide. What will the addition of 0.193 moles of hydrobromic acid do? (Assume that the volume does not change upon the addition of hydrobromic acid.) *More than one answer is accepted. A. Raise the pH slightly B. Lower the pH slightly C. Raise the pH by several units D. Lower the pH by several units E. Not change the pH F. Exceed the buffer capacityarrow_forward
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