CIVIL 4210 Spring 23 exams
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School
Auburn University *
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Course
4210
Subject
Chemistry
Date
Apr 3, 2024
Type
Pages
13
Uploaded by gst0006
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
Name Type of Calculator CIVIL 4210 Spring 2023 Exam 1 1.
How much CaO is required to completely neutralize 0.1 N of HCl? a. 0.05 N b. 0.1 N c. 0.2 N d. 0.4 N 2.
How many kg/day of NaOH must be added to neutralize a waste stream generated by an industry producing 50 metric tons (1 metric ton=1,000 kg) per day of sulfuric acid, if 0.2% of the sulfuric acid produced is lost to wastewater? The wastewater flow is 400,000 L/day. a.
81.6 kg/d b.
60.1 kg/d c.
40.8 kg/d d.
20.4 kg/d
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
The following is a clarifier-thickener system to separate non-reactive solids from water with some flows and concentrations given in the table below. Ignore the effects of solids content on density of each stream (i.e., assume density of solids = density of water). A A’ B C D E Stream Flow rate, L/s Solids, mg/L A 180 1000 B 171 5 C 2000 D 90 E A’ 3.
What is Q
E
? a.
9 L/s b.
171 L/s c.
351 L/s d.
441 L/s 4.
What is C
E
? a.
20,000 mg/L b.
995 mg/L c.
3,005 mg/L d.
5 mg/L
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
5.
A 4.0 cm diameter, 1,000 m long pipe carries a flow of 2.00 x 10
-3
m
3
s
-1
. What is the Reynold’s Number (μ=8.50 x 10
-4
kg m
-1
s
-1
)? a.
74,900 b.
1,500 c.
25,200 d.
180,000 6.
According to the most recent City of Auburn Consumer Confidence Report, which of the following is not a source of Auburn’s drinking water? a.
Lake Ogletree b.
City of Opelika c.
Groundwater wells in Auburn d.
Chattahoochee River 7.
What is the approximate residential cost ($/gal) of potable water in Auburn? a. 0.0005 b. 0.005
c. 0.05 d. 0.50 8.
Which of the following does not have an MCL? a. As b. THM c. Mg
d. Pb
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Name Type of Calculator CIVIL 4210 Spring 2023 Exam 2 1.
What is the primary purpose of using at least two different granular media (e.g., sand and coal) in a filter? a. Maintain the desired particle gradation (large on top, small on bottom) after backwashing b. Minimize particle abrasion during backwashing c. Remove both Type I and Type II settled particles d. Decrease the head loss by providing alternate flow paths during backwashing 2.
Which one of the following is not true of membrane filters? a.
Experiences reversible fouling b.
Experiences irreversible fouling c.
Requires backwashing d.
Removes dissolved but not suspended solids 3.
What class of organic compounds just had new MCLs proposed? a.
Per- and polyfluroalkyl substances (PFAS) b.
Trihalomethanes (THM) c.
Haloacetic acids (HAA) d.
Natural organic matter (NOM) 4.
Why are utilities increasingly taking steps to minimize the average residence time of water in their distribution system (e.g., removing water storage tanks from service)? a. Increase disinfection efficiency b. Minimize formation of DBPs c. Decrease corrosion d Increase municipal fire-insurance rating 5.
Which of the following would not be an acceptable secondary disinfectant? a. Chlorine b. Chloramines c. Ultraviolent light d. Chlorine dioxide
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
6.
Which of the following would have the highest DO
SAT
? a. Freshwater at 10 ºC b. Freshwater at 20 ºC c. Seawater at 10 ºC d. Seawater at 20 ºC 7.
What is the primary purpose of the “largest civil engineering project on earth” at the Thornton Quarry? a. Reduce the flow of nutrients to Lake Michigan b. Supplement Chicago’s drinking water supply c. Storing combined sewer overflow d. Providing limestone to reverse the flow of the Chicago River 8.
According to the of the American Society of Civil Engineers’ Code of Ethics, which of the following is the first and foremost ethical responsibility of civil and environmental engineers? a.
express professional opinions truthfully and only when founded on adequate knowledge and honest conviction b.
mitigate adverse societal, environmental, and economic effects c.
act as faithful agents of their clients and employers with integrity and professionalism d.
protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public 9.
If the residual disinfectant concentration is decreased by a factor of two, what will have to be done to the contact time to maintain the same level of disinfection? a.
increase contact time by a factor of two b.
decrease contact time by a factor of two c.
increase contact time by a factor of four d.
decrease contact time by a factor of four 10.
What is a state’s 303(d) list? a.
List of the state’s waterbodies that are fishable and swimmable b.
List of the state’s NPDES permits c.
List of the state’s impaired waterbodies d.
List of the state’s POTWs
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
11.
Rapid mixing facilities in a rapid sand filtration plant must be designed to achieve a minimum hydraulic residence time of 30 seconds. For a water production rate of 10,000 m
3
d
-1
, what are the required dimensions of the rapid mixing tanks (length x width x depth in meters)? There should be two tanks in parallel for reliability. Use a square tank configuration with the depth equal to 1.25 times the width. a.
1.11 x 1.11 x 1.39 b.
1.41 x 1.41 x 1.76 c.
1.21 x 1.21 x 1.21 d.
3.51 x 3.51 x 2.61 12.
What mixing power is needed for a 40 m x 30 m x 5 m flocculation basis to achieve a G of 50 s
-1
if the water temperature is 25 ºC (μ=8.9x10
-4
kg m
-1
s
-1
)? a.
1.33 x 10
4
kg m
2
s
-3
b.
2.21 x 10
5
kg m
2
s
-3
c.
8.17 x 10
4
kg m
2
s
-3
d.
4.23 x 10
3
kg m
2
s
-3
13.
What is the theoretical removal efficiency of a 10 μm particle (
s
=2650 kg/m
3
) undergoing Type I settling in a sedimentation basin operating at an overflow rate of 20 m
3
/m
2
/day at 10 ºC (μ=1.31 x 10
-3
kg/m/s)? Recall that the removal efficiency for a Type I particle is the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the settling velocity of the particle to the settling velocity of the smallest particle that is completely removed. a.
30%
b.
18% c.
54% d.
91% 14.
What membrane area is required for a 100 m
3
d
-1
water treatment plant operating at a transmembrane pressure of 50 kPa at 20 ºC (
=1.00x10
-3
Pa s) using membranes with an R
m
of 5 x 10
10
cm
-1
? a.
115 m
2
b.
85 m
2
c.
185 m
2
d.
65 m
2
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Name Type of Calculator CIVIL 4210 Spring 2023 Exam 3 1.
Everything else being equal, the volume of a CSTR required to achieve the same degree of treatment as a PFR will always be: a. less than or equal to the volume of the PFR b. less than the volume of the PFR c. greater than or equal to the volume of the PFR d. greater than the volume of the PFR 2.
In the video “Liquid Assets,” which of the following cities was not featured? a.
New York, NY b.
Atlanta, GA c.
Herminie, PA d.
Denver, CO 3.
What is the primary advantage of a COD test relative to a BOD test? a.
cost b.
time c.
waste d.
safety 4.
What is the main advantage of phosphorous removal by chemical precipitation versus biological phosphorous removal? a.
Chemical precipitation is cheaper b.
Chemical precipitation doesn’t require filtration c.
Chemical precipitation produces lower phosphorous levels d.
Chemical precipitation is safer 5.
As discussed in the case study, what was the main new component installed during the University of Mobile’s wastewater system upgrade? a.
Drip irrigation system b.
PFAS monitoring system c.
Nutrient removal system d.
Anaerobic sludge digestion system
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
6.
With regards to the Valley Wastewater Treatment Plant (schematic diagram provided), which of the following is considered tertiary treatment? a.
Equalization basin b.
Grit chamber c.
Sequencing batch reactor d.
Filter 7.
With regards to the Valley Wastewater Treatment Plant (schematic diagram provided), what is the purpose of the equalization basin? a.
Tertiary treatment b.
Biological nutrient removal c.
Maintain a consistent plant flowrate d.
Provide a parallel treatment train 8.
With regards to the Valley Wastewater Treatment Plant (schematic diagram provided), what is the purpose of the baffles in the chlorine contact chambers? a.
Minimize short circuiting to promote plug flow b.
Enhance mixing c.
Promote oxygen transfer d.
Minimize head loss 9.
With regards to the Valley Wastewater Treatment Plant (schematic diagram provided), how many parallel biological treatment trains are there? a.
1 b.
2 c.
3 d.
4 10.
Which one of the following mechanisms is not involved in P removal? a.
P is removed via sludge wasting b.
P is removed via filtration c.
P is removed via chemical precipitation d.
P is removed via the gas phase
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
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Please note that this exam is two-sided.
11.
The effluent from the primary clarifier at a wastewater treatment plant has a flowrate of 12,960 m
3
d
-1
and a BOD
5
of 84 mg L
-1
. What size aeration basin is needed to maintain a food-to-microorganism ratio of 0.4 d
-1
with a MLVSS of 2,000 mg L
-1
? a.
1360 m
3
b.
1050 m
3
c.
820 m
3
d.
575 m
3
12.
If the design criteria for a secondary clarifier is a weir overflow rate of <30,000 gpd/ft, what minimum secondary clarifier diameter is needed at a 5 MGD WWTP with a RAS flow of 1 MGD and a MLSS of 2,000 mg/L? a.
192.8 feet b.
72.8 feet c.
56.4 feet d.
63.6 feet 13.
A wastewater treatment plant is currently disposing of 187,500 kg d
-1
of sludge with a solids concentration of 12%. If a new dewatering process is implemented that is capable of increasing the solids concentration in the sludge to 20%, how much will be saved each year in sludge disposal costs if the sludge disposal rate is $65 per metric ton (1 metric ton = 1,000 kg)? a.
$1.78 million b.
$2.73 million c.
$4.20 million d.
$6.33 million 14.
If a 1 MGD wastewater with an initial alkalinity of 60 mg L
-1
as CaCO
3
requires 100 mg L
-1
as CaCO
3
for nitrification, how much lime must be added per day to complete the nitrification reaction if the lime is 70% CaO(s) by mass? a.
59.3 kg d
-1
b.
84.7 kg d
-1
c.
121 kg d
-1
d.
242 kg d
-1
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
Name Type of Calculator CIVIL 4210 Spring 2023 Final Exam 1.
What is the approximate residential cost ($/gal) of potable water in Auburn? a. 0.0005 b. 0.005
c. 0.05 d. 0.50 2.
Which one of the following is not true of membrane filters? a.
Experiences reversible fouling b.
Experiences irreversible fouling c.
Requires backwashing d.
Removes dissolved but not suspended solids 3.
Which of the following would have the lowest DO
SAT
? a. Freshwater at 10 ºC b. Freshwater at 20 ºC c. Seawater at 10 ºC d. Seawater at 20 ºC 4.
According to the of the American Society of Civil Engineers’ Code of Ethics, which of the following is the first and foremost ethical responsibility of civil and environmental engineers? a.
express professional opinions truthfully and only when founded on adequate knowledge and honest conviction b.
mitigate adverse societal, environmental, and economic effects c.
act as faithful agents of their clients and employers with integrity and professionalism d.
protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public 5.
What is the main advantage of phosphorous removal by chemical precipitation versus biological phosphorous removal? a.
Chemical precipitation is cheaper b.
Chemical precipitation doesn’t require filtration c.
Chemical precipitation produces lower phosphorous levels d.
Chemical precipitation is safer
Please note that this exam is two-sided.
6.
Everything else being equal, the volume of a CSTR required to achieve the same degree of treatment as a PFR will always be: a. less than or equal to the volume of the PFR b. less than the volume of the PFR c. greater than or equal to the volume of the PFR d. greater than the volume of the PFR 7.
Given the water distribution network below If the system is at steady state, what is the flowrate in Pipe AE? a. 0.5 m
3
s
-1
b. 1.5 m
3
s
-1
c. 2.0 m
3
s
-1
d. 5.0 m
3
s
-1
8.
Given the water distribution network below If the system is at steady state, what is the flowrate out of the network at Junction C? a. 0.5 m
3
s
-1
b. 1.5 m
3
s
-1
c. 2.0 m
3
s
-1
d. 5.0 m
3
s
-1
9.
For an ideal settling basin, doubling the water depth while maintaining a constant overflow rate has what effect on the removal efficiency of any given particle size? a. No effect
b. increase x2 c. decrease x2 d. decrease x4
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10.
What is the main difference between primary and secondary wastewater treatment? a. Secondary treatment is designed to remove soluble BOD b. Primary treatment is health based c. Secondary treatment is designed to remove TSS d. Primary treatment is the ideal design developed without regard to cost 11.
If the design criteria for a secondary clarifier is a weir overflow rate of <27,000 gpd/ft, what minimum secondary clarifier diameter is needed at a 5 MGD WWTP with a RAS flow of 1 MGD and a MLSS of 2,000 mg/L? a.
192.8 feet b.
70.7 feet c.
56.4 feet d.
63.6 feet 12.
If the required alum dosage [Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
ꞏ
14 H
2
O, 6 equivalents per mole] in a 5,000 m
3
d
-1
water treatment plant is 30 mg L
-1
, and the raw water has an initial alkalinity of 10 mg L
-1
as CaCO
3
, how much lime must be added per day to neutralize the alum if the lime is 70% CaO(s) by mass? a.
0.0 kg d
-1
b.
20.6 kg d
-1
c.
30.1 kg d
-1
d.
56.3 kg d
-1
13.
At a surface water treatment plant, chlorine is applied at the entrance of the clear well that has a t
10
of 10 min. After exiting the clear well but prior to the first service connection, the water travels through a 4,000 ft pipe at a velocity 5 ft s
-1
. If the required C
ꞏ
t is 28.3 mg L
-1
min, what chlorine residual must be present in the pipeline at the first service connection? a.
1.21 mg L
-1
b.
1.36 mg L
-1
c.
2.13 mg L
-1
d.
2.83 mg L
-1
14.
If 100 mg L
-1
of Na
3
PO
4
(s) is dissolved in water via the reaction below, what is the resulting concentration of PO
4
? +
3-
3
4
4
Na PO (s) 3Na
+ PO
a. 19 mg L
-1
PO
4
-P
b. 25 mg L
-1
PO
4
-P c. 58 mg L
-1
PO
4
-P d. 100 mg L
-1
PO
4
-P
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46.
What is the concentration of Na,SO, in a solution if the concentration of Nat ions is 0.35
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eaction
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