You will have to dilute your inital Lysozyme stock in order to pipet volumes larger than 10 uL for the Bradford assay. Calculate a dilution of the 10 mg/mL Lysozyme standard needed to create ensure an appropriate final protein range for the Bradford assay - what concentration will your Lysozyme standard be at for the Bradford assay?
Q: 2. Draw the ringed form of D-glucose with the following modifications: (a) Convert to sugar acid at…
A: Below answer given Explanation:Step 1:(A) Step 2:(B)(C)&(D) Step 3: Step 4:
Q: The presence of the MCS in the coding region also results in us being able to express inserts…
A: The Multiple Cloning Site (MCS) is a short segment of DNA containing many (multiple) restriction…
Q: A partial diploid in E. coli is created so that LacI is no longer expressed from the genome and is…
A: Partial diploid E.coli has both chromosomal DNA (i.e. genome) and plasmid DNA, but all the genes are…
Q: Transcription factors bind to: Question 20 options: DNA regions called…
A: Transcription factors bind to: DNA regions called cis-acting elementsExplanation:The question…
Q: drawing of electron pushing not the explaination I just need electron pushing arrow mechanism for…
A:
Q: Genetics Question 9
A: The objective of the question is to identify the event that occurs last during meiosis and the…
Q: Which model (2D topology or trRosetta) is likely a better representation of the actual protein AlaE,…
A: In the context of protein structure prediction, the posterior probability is generally considered a…
Q: With the ninhydrin method, it was determined that an acyclic decapeptide consists of the following…
A: Elastase cleaves the peptide bonds formed by small hydrophobic amino acids, towards the C-terminal…
Q: Creatine phosphate is used as a phosphoryl donor for ATP synthesis in muscle. It provides ATP for…
A: a) The enzyme creatine kinase catalyzes the production of creatine phosphate. The response is as…
Q: MATCH a structure or term from the following list with each description below. Place the letter of…
A: 1. The reactive electrophile in Friedel-Crafts acylation reactions (R3C⁺): In Friedel-Crafts…
Q: What is the driving force that promotes secondary structure formation of alpha helices and beta…
A: Alpha-helix and beta-sheets are the two most prominent regular secondary structures in protein.…
Q: d. e. fo HO -OH NH2 n blood HO n H3C SCOA OH HO NH CH3
A: Reactions mechanisms are basically jumping of electrons within and between the reactants. Based on…
Q: Ringlemann scale is used to analyze O a. Carbon monoxide Ob. Nitrogen dioxide O c. hydrocarbons O d.…
A: The objective of the question is to identify the substance that the Ringlemann scale is used to…
Q: An π helix can be described as a 4.4 helix. Explain 16 what this designation means. Given the pitch…
A: ●A π helix is a type of secondary structure found in proteins.The amino acids in a standard π-helix…
Q: Experiment Mouse injected with type S Mouse injected with type R Lived or Died Die Live Mouse…
A: In 1928, Frederich Griffith undertook the bacterial transformation experiment where he injected mice…
Q: To oxidize the fatty acid molecule shown below, what enzyme(s) are needed in addition to the enzymes…
A: Fatty acids are carboxylic acids with a hydrocarbon chain ranging from 4 carbon to 36 carbons.…
Q: Derivatives of purines and pyrimidines make up the base component of nucleotides. Н HCG 6 N 5 7…
A: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule that is present in all known living things as well as many…
Q: Red blood cells synthesize and degrade 2,3-biphosphogylerate (2,3-BPG) as a detour from the…
A: In glycolysis, a 6-carbon molecule of glucose-6-phosphate is broken down into 3-carbon pyruvate. It…
Q: Question 1: tRNA and amino acyl tRNA synthetases Part a: How many codons encode the amino acid…
A: Methionine is encoded by a single codon, AUG, which also serves as the start codon in protein…
Q: The Drug AZT is used to treat AIDS, This drug is a _____ Inhibitor/Activator of _____ a)…
A: HIV stands for human immunodeficiency virus. HIV destroys a type of white blood cells that help the…
Q: Some enzymes have catalytic activity only limited by diffusion. Which rate constants of an enzyme-…
A: Diffusion is the process by which molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of…
Q: what metabolic pathways are more likely to be active during: a) fasting, b) overnight fast) and c)…
A: Intermediary metabolism, also known as metabolic pathways, is the intricate network of chemical…
Q: With regards to antibodies define the following terms in the space belowa. CDRsb. Constant regions
A: a. CDRs (Complementarity-Determining Regions):CDRs are specific regions within the variable domains…
Q: Genetics 8 Q7
A: The objective of the question is to understand the possible outcomes of non-disjunction in a female…
Q: Under extensive energy needs cells are constantly converting sugar into CO2 as a result of cellular…
A: During cellular respiration, cells convert sugar into carbon dioxide (CO2) and other byproducts.…
Q: Q1
A: The objective of this question is to identify and explain three key differences between DNA…
Q: How does a protein 'know' how to fold into its native conformation and in general why is folding…
A: Proteins are made up of amino acids, which are linked together in a specific sequence by peptide…
Q: p53 is an activator of a miRNA called miR-145. miR-145 targets c-myc, a gene that promotes cellular…
A: Increased proliferation and survival.Explanation:Increased proliferation and survival would be the…
Q: Absorbance A calibration curve for the absorbance of an unknown is shown below. What would be the…
A: A calibration curve is plotted to determine how the absorbance of a solution changes as per the…
Q: Hyperacetylation of histone tails is often associated with: Question 22 options:…
A: Loose conformation of Chromatin Explanation:Histone connections with DNA become weaker by…
Q: using sample prep aka the protocol use it to fill in the tables
A: Explanation: Lysozyme (mL): The amount of lysozyme diluted and added to each conical tube. The…
Q: Draw the structure of phosphatidylcholine at pH 7 with the moiety on R₁ as 14:0 (C14) and R₂ as…
A: Glycerophospholipids, membrane lipids in which two fatty acids are attached in ester linkage to the…
Q: Genetics Question 11
A: The objective of the question is to identify the stage of meiosis and the parent in which…
Q: sickle cell anemia
A: Sickle cell anemia (SCA) is a genetic disorder identified by abnormal red blood cells. Genetic…
Q: Question #4 The graph on the left shows data for an experiment in which isolated mitochondria were…
A: The process of oxidative phosphorylation, which mitochondria use to produce energy, is essential to…
Q: 1. Opine dehydrogenases (ODH) have evolved in invertebrate marine organisms with wide-ranging…
A: To determine the L/D configuration of amino acids, place the alpha carbon () in the center, the…
Q: The __________ strand is read by RNA polymerase. The __________ strand is identical to the…
A: The theory of central dogma states that genetic information flows only in one direction, from DNA,…
Q: Question 5
A: The question is asking whether a mouse would die if it was injected with a mixture of heat-treated S…
Q: During metaphase of mitosis, a cell from this organism would have a) A single line of 3 chromosomes…
A: Mitotic metaphase is the stage in nuclear division where the chromosomes line up in a single line…
Q: ucleotide c a. Draw a likely mechanism for the following reaction (EC 6.3.4.2) from ribonucleotide…
A: Both reactions (a) catalyzed by [EC 6.3.4.2] and (b) catalyzed by [EC 6.3.3.1] involve transfer of…
Q: The effects of hydroxymethylaspartate as an inhibitor for this enzyme was studied. The following…
A: The Lineweaver-Burk plot, also known as a double reciprocal plot, is a graphical representation of…
Q: In the situations described below, what is the free energy change if 1 mole of Na+ is transported…
A: The objective of the question is to calculate the free energy change (ΔG) when 1 mole of Na+ is…
Q: The 5’ cap is involved in all the following except: Question 19 options: Splicing exons…
A: The processing of mRNA formed from transcription is called post transcriptional modification. Thes…
Q: Please help me fill out the boxes in the worksheet
A: The image represents a simplified overview of several interconnected metabolic pathways, including…
Q: 2. The mature form of TEM-1 ß-lactamase, an enzyme of 290 amino acid residues that hydrolyzes…
A: Before calculating the isoelectric point (pI) of the enzyme, we need to be thorough with the…
Q: The enzyme urease increases the rate of urea hydrolysis at pH 8.0 and 20 °C by a factor of 10¹4.…
A: timeuncatalyzed = 5.70x108 yearsExplanation:The given information indicates that urease increases…
Q: 4. The interaction of Vitamin D3 with lipid membranes may be studied using different techniques. One…
A: A class of fat-soluble secosteroids is called vitamin D3 .Vitamin D3 is a kind of vitamin D that is…
Q: Design a cation exchange experiment to purify a protein with a pl of 4.2. Charge of the beads on the…
A: Amino acids are the constituent monomers of the polymer proteins. Amino acids have a characteristic…
Q: Tryphtophan is an essential amino acid that is used in the biosynthesis of proteins. Its molecular…
A: Amino acids are biomolecules that have a hydrogen atom, a carboxyl group, an amino group and a…
Q: (5) s) Consider the equation for enzyme action below: E-S E-P E+S complex E+P complex Briefly…
A: Catalyst are chemical compounds that speed up chemical reactions but do not undergo any changes…
Step by step
Solved in 2 steps
- If 1ml of an unknown sample of protein is diluted to 10ml, and a 0.5ml portion of the diluted sample is found to contain 50ug of protein when assayed for protein using the lowry method. If you mix two unknown samples and repeat the lowry assay, is the absorbance equivalent to the sum of the two individual unknown samples that is used?IN A BIURET ASSAY TWO PROTEIN SOLUTION CONTAINING 150MG/ML AND 180MG/ML SHOWS THE SIMILAR ABSORBANCE. IS IT POSSIBLE?The oligonucleotide d-ATGCCTGACT was subjected to sequencing by Sanger’s dideoxy method, and the products were analyzed by electrophoresis on a polyacrylamide. Draw a diagram of the gel banding pattern obtained.
- What does -log(p-value) tell in immunoprecipitation mass spectrometry? What does log2 Fold change say? Generally, what does the graph of immunoprecipitation mass spectrometry tell (ie. how to read its graph)?For the following sequence, what is the approximate annealing temperature? 5'-AGCTACGATCAGGTCA-3'This is an SDS-PAGE of an antibody purification sample with IgG seperated from a Bovine Calf serum. Would you be able to describe the bands that are appearing and why it appeared on the gel this way? As well, a western blot was done after the SDS-PAGE and the bands that appeared were at 50 kDa and 150 kDa for the IgG and two elution lanes. May you please explain?
- If 1ml of an unknown sample of protein is diluted to 10ml, and a 0.5ml portion of the diluted sample is found to contain 50ug of protein when assayed for protein using the lowry method. What is the concentration of protein in ug/ml in the original sample?an protein has a molecular wieght of 90 KD when purified by gel filtration and has a molecular wieght of 60 KD hen purified by electrophoresis which one is the more selective?With an A260 value of 1.12 and a DNA concentration of 56.0 ng/mL, what is the pathlength of the optical system used within the Nanodrop?
- Identify two other methods of protein content determination and differentiate them from the Bradford assayWhen the gel is removed from the chamber in SDS-PAGE, only the “pre-stained” protein standard is visible. There are no other proteins visible on the rest of the gel. Did something go wrong here? Why can’t you see the other proteins?You have an extract of BL21(DE3) cells containing a soluble, 75 kDa recombinant protein that has a histidine tail at its C-terminus. This extract is still in raw form and you need to purify this protein without losing its solubility. Check the option below that represents the best purification methodology in the order of execution. * a) (1) isoelectric precipitation; (2) microfiltration; (3) affinity chromatography; (4) anion exchange chromatography b) (1) centrifugation; (2) microfiltration; (3) isoelectric precipitation; (4) affinity chromatography c) (1) centrifugation; (2) microfiltration; (3) affinity chromatography; (4) ultrafiltration d) (1) microfiltration; (2) jumping out; (3) centrifugation; (4) affinity chromatography