Suppose we prove that 2" > n? for n=1 and 2. Knowing that the inequality is true for some n n > 4 and we can show that it must be true for n+1 instead of n, can we conclude that 2" > n2 is true for all n > 1 ? True False

3. (Р5, Раge 16; Prove that a <0. (You may have to use Proof by Contradiction and Archimedean Property, Part ii.) Suppose that the number a has the property that for every natural number n, a < 1/n.

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Option 3 Q8. For which positive integer values of n is true? 1 1 n+2 O O O O ≤ 0.02014 < O Option 1 n=48,49 O Option 2 n=58,49 O Option 3 n-68,49 n=78,49 O Option 4 Q9. Solve -|S Option 4 n