PROBLEM 1: Use the "up-down" binomial pricing method to derive call option values for the following conditions: A. S = 30, K = 34, r = 3%, t = .25, u = 1.5, d = .5 and there is only one step or "jump" before expiration. Assume this is a European option. Show your work.

hi im looking at the solution above and have a quuestion-im a littlepuzzled on exactly how i should be plugging in the numbersfor example, the chart liists Time (ln2/(ln(1+r)) but how exactly should i type this in my calculatorto get =l3/J3? maybe im overthinking it

PLEASE, WRITE THE SOLUTIONS ON PAPER, EXPLAINING THE ENTIRE PROCESS, THE ONLY AND CORRECT ANSWERS ARE FOR (i) V(t) = exp (-2e^0.02t + 2 ) for 0 15 (i) Derive, and simplify as far as possible, expressions in terms of t for V(t), where V(t) is the present value of a unit sum of cash flow made at time t. You should derive separate expressions for the three sub-intervals. (ii) Hence, making use of the result in part (i), calculate the value at time t = 3 of a payment of £2,500 made at time t = 15. (iii) Calculate, to the nearest 0.01%, the constant nominal annual rate of interest convertible half-yearly implied by the transaction in part (ii). (iv) Making use of the result in part (i), calculate the present value of a payment stream p(t) paid continuously from time t = 15 to t = 20 at a rate of payment at time t given by: p(t) = 300e 0.02t