Let E and F be measurable sets each having finite measure. Prove that m(EAF) = 0 if and only if m(E) = m(ENF) = m(F).

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Prove the converse also plzz..Thanku

Let E and F be measurable sets each having finite measure. Prove that m(EAF) = 0
if and only if m(E) = m(EnF) = m(F).
Transcribed Image Text:Let E and F be measurable sets each having finite measure. Prove that m(EAF) = 0 if and only if m(E) = m(EnF) = m(F).
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