Engels was writing at a time when "first wave" European feminists were pushing for legal equality - voting rights, property rights, and so on. Engels argues that these sorts of legal reforms will not actually solve women's inequality. What are at least two reasons he gives for this claim?
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Engels was writing at a time when "first wave" European feminists were pushing for legal equality - voting rights, property rights, and so on. Engels argues that these sorts of legal reforms will not actually solve women's inequality. What are at least two reasons he gives for this claim?
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