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Bonnie, a 52-year-old female, has been having some mild pain in her legs recently and is not sure if she should be concerned about it. She decides to visit her primary care physician since the pain isn’t going away. Bonnie tells her physician that the pain feels like a “general soreness or ache” and seems to be worse on the left side. Her physician notes that the left lower leg seems slightly swollen when compared to the right and feels slightly warmer than the right leg.
Bonnie has a history of smoking (1-2 packs/week in her 20s and 30s). She has a BMI of 29. She travels often to see her family that lives across the country. The only medication she has ever taken regularly was oral contraceptives. Now that she is peri-menopausal, she has been treating her symptoms with hormone replacement therapy.
Which of these statements is most likely correct?
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Bonnie has deep vein thrombosis.
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Bonnie’s leg pain is likely caused by shin splints.
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Bonnie is likely experiencing osteoarthritis.
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Bonnie is experiencing symptoms relating to peripheral neuropathy.
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