b) If the effective mass of electron is 0.4m0 having momentum 2.416× 10−16 ????. ?? ??? then calculate energy of free electron in “electron volt” at the bottom of conduction band

Semiconductor Physics /Microelectronics: Why is the voltage drop across a PN junction expressed as V = (1/e0)*x_p*N_a*q*(W/2)? Can you derive it?

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3. For a Si bar of length 5um, doped n-type at 3x10¹ cm³, calculate the current density for an applied field of 3V across its length. Then do the same for a voltage of 3200V. You can assume that the electron and hole mobilities are 1500 and 500 cm²/V.s, respectively, in the ohmic region below 10¹V/cm and. For higher fields, both electrons and holes have a saturation velocity of 107cm/s.