According to the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model, in the long run a decrease in the money supply leads to A) decreases in both the price level and real GDP. B) an increase in real GDP and an increase in the price level. C) a decrease in the price level but does not change real GDP. D) an increase in the price level but does not change real GDP.

There are the three reasons why aggregate demand is downward slope: real wealth effect, interest rate effect, exchange rate effect. In a case scenario the market saw an increase in consumer spending when there is a boom in economy. Or the economic crisis makes the public bit shy to buy or consume any product. In the above two situations: the transfer payment does not make the part of government spending as the public will spend the money given as self-security and unemployment. Export situation gets worse as the foreigners are reluctant to buy expensive goods and the government will make some imports. The borrowing has become easy and loans are issued at a cheaper rate to buy car.   Following the equation: Y = C + I + G + NX will the below examples increase or decrease the aggregate demand in Pakistan? What will be the shift in position for below situations? Widespread fear of recession  The appreciation in the Pakistani Rupee rate  A boom in the stock market  An increase in transfer…

This graph shows an increase in aggregate supply in a hypothetical economy where the currency is the dollar. Specifically, the short-run aggregate supply curve (SRAS) shifts to the right from SRAS1 to SRAS2, causing the quantity of output supplied at a price level of 125 to rise from $250 billion to $350 billion.

According to the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model, in the long run a decrease in the money supply leads to A) decreases in both the price level and real GDP. B) an increase in real GDP and an increase in the price level. C) a decrease in the price level but does not change real GDP. D) an increase in the price level but does not change real GDP.