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Why Does Socrates Say That Meletus Is Likely To Be Wise?

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Writing Assignment #1 Euthyphro

Q1. Why does Socrates say that Meletus is likely to be wise?

A1: Socrates says that Meletus has vast knowledge for a young man on the charge that he is bringing against him. Also, Socrates points out that Meletus is “the only one of our public men to start out the right way” (P.74, 2c) Meletus is aware of the people who corrupt the young people.

Q2. What sort of character does Socrates ascribe to Meletus?

A2: Socrates describes Melatus as a caring person towards the elderly, Socrates says “he will obviously take care of the older ones.” (P.74-75, 3) Also, Socrates describes Meletus as a blessing.

Q3. There seem to be two charges against Socrates. Can you identify them?
A3: The first charge is for “corrupting …show more content…

What does Socrates think is the likely reason he is on trial?

A8: Socrates believes he is on trial for not believing in the same gods that the city believes in and for creating new gods. (P.75, 3)

Q9. What is Socrates’ objection to the first definition of piety that Euthyphro has proposed?

A9: Socrates believes that the first definition piety given by Euthyphro is very vague; Euthyphro has only given an example of what piety is (his current action in prosecuting his father) not a definition. Socrates wants Euthyphro to be more specific in what he defines as piety.

Q10. What was Euthyphro’s second definition of piety?

A10: Actions that please the gods is pious. (P.77, 7)

Q11. How does Socrates derive the conclusion that “the same things then are loved by the gods and hated by the gods”? Is this a correct deduction from the statements Euthyphro previously agreed to?

A11: It was stated that the gods disagree with each other and are at “odds with each other.” (P.77, 7b). The gods disagree with each other over what should be considered just and unjust. The conclusion that “the same things then are loved by the gods and hated by the gods” is a correct deduction because the fact that the gods disagree with each other and are at odds witch each other would indicate that the same thing or action may please one god, yet at the same time displease …show more content…

Also, the meaning of piety becomes even more unclear when both Socrates and Euthyphro agree that the gods are at odds with each other over what is considered pious and impious, therefore the classification of what is pious and what is impious appears to be in the grey zone. I think that the discussion has come full circle, because Euthyphro, after several attempts has been unable to give Socrates a clear definition of piety and impiety, so at the end of the dialogue, when Socrates asks Euthyphro to give him a clear definition of piety and impiety, Euthyphro realizes that he has been unable to give Socrates a clear definition of the two terms, and therefore makes the excuse that he is in a hurry to be somewhere. So, the discussion has come full circle because Socrates is still uncertain of what piety really

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