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Kantian Influence

Decent Essays

Kantian patterns of thought are perhaps the most well recognized syllogisms to man. That being said, it is not surprising by any means that such stems of logic have influence upon the individuals who happen to cross them. However, to examine the impact of such thought on man, nations and all, would be too large of task to create one overarching umbrella of claims. Therefore, let us analyze Kantian influence on Europe and its development and how such patterns of thought shaped Europe into the egregious collection of nations that one knows today. Before delving into the main question, one must be familiar with the basics of Kant’s philosophy. The main component of Kantian philosophy and deontic thought is that of Practical Reason. Practical …show more content…

First workings of cosmopolitanism are seen after world war one, in the literal League of Nations in Europe, and later in the creation of the European Union. This coming together of nations is clearly influenced by the work of Kant and has Kantian underpinnings. First, because the E.U. is mean to form as a method of keeping peace amongst the European states, something that they were most definitely in need of prior to the 20th century. This creation of the E.U. not only achieves it’s purpose of fostering peace but also does so with a shared sense of morality, while yet still individually maintaining a sense of sovereignty independent of the collective body. However, this is what makes Europe so unique to the rest of the world. Europe is only collection of nations that can band together with a sense of shared morality whist still maintaining a level of sovereignty militarily, because the United States is so non-Kantian. This is of course meant in terms of cosmopolitan ideals. The United States is arguably isolationist, doesn’t seek to foster a shared sense of morality with other states and is militaristic. However, these very qualities that the United States have are what make a Kantian Cosmopolitan Europe possible. The U.S. provided the security needed in order for the E.U. to function. Thus breeding the cultural and ideological differences between the Western and Old world. Without …show more content…

But regardless of the size of the impact, there still begs the question of, was this change for the betterment of Europe. Now, without getting deeply embedded in arguments over the constitutive nature of the state and social contracts, one, if they are to come to conclusion on such a broad statement, needs to evaluate the outcome given the circumstances. Europe, as a collect of differing peoples has always valued, whether it be collectively or individually, the deep-rooted culture and language that exists. This being said, that is not to say that European countries were never militaristic or imperialist for they were at some point in time, but perhaps we are looking at this question in the wrong light. Perhaps, we cannot compare Europe to other nations or collections of nations because Europe is not like them. Perhaps, one suggests that Europe has moved past them, to a more advanced form of statehood. For if we look through a Kantian perspective clearly Europe is winning, but this is not say that it is an end all be all simply because Kant says it is right. Thus, the question should be changed to be Kant’s effect on Europe necessary, and to that inquiry I believe the question is yes. For if not for the changes that Kant indirectly instilled, the fruition of other lesser and greater

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