BIOD 171 final exam
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BIOD 171 final exam
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1.
match each of the following or-
ganelles with the correct description:
1. nucleus
2. endoplasmic reticulum
3. lysosomes
4. chloroplasts
a. contains genetic content
b. site of photosynthesis
c. contains hydrolytic enzymes
d. series of membrane-enclosed sacs and interconnected tubes
nucleus--contains genetic content
ER--series of membrane-enclosed sacs and interconnected tubes
lysosomes--contains hydrolytic en-
zymes
chloroplasts--site of photosynthe-
sis
2.
briefly explain how a Scanning Elec-
tron Microscope (SEM) forms an im-
age of subcellular organelles, sub-
strates, and viral particles
an image is formed from the inter-
actions of electrons as they reflect off (not through) the surface of the specimen. samplse are coated in either gold or palladium to enhance electron reflections. the reflection is seen in 3D rendering
3.
match each of the following diseases to the correct bacterial family
1. scalded skin syndrome
2. bubonic plague
3. opthalmia neonatorium
4. legionnaires
a. staphylococcus
b. yersina pestis
c. legionella
d. staph aureus
scalded skin syndrome--staph au-
reus
bubonic plague--yersina pestis
opthalmia neonatorium--staphylo-
coccus
legionnaires--legionella
4.
identify each of the following microor-
ganisms as either prokaryote or eu-
karyote
1. e. coli
e. coli--prokaryote
archaeons--prokaryote
yeast--eukaryote
amoeba--eukaryote
1 / 18
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2. archaeons
2. yeast
4. amoeba
5.
match each of the following terms with the correct description
1. phototroph
2. lithotroph
3. autotroph
4. chemotroph
a. utilize photons
b. remove electrons from inorganic molecules
c. obtain their source of carbon from inorganic materials
d. acquire energy from already exist-
ing chemicals found in environment
phototroph--utilize photons of light to generate ATP from ADP
lithotroph--remove electrons from inorganic molecules
autotroph--obtain their source of carbon from inorganic materials
chemotroph--acquire energy from already existing chemicals found in environment
6.
the gram stain differentiates between bacteria based on the composition of their
cell wall
7.
left untreated, 3% of cases of strep-
tococcal pharyngitis will progress to which of the following
a. klebsiella pneumonia
b. conjunctivitis
c. laryngitis
d. rheumatic fever
rheumatic fever
8.
describe two differences between DNA and RNA
-RNA contains the sugar ribose while DNA contains the sugar de-
oxyribose
-RNA has single stranding with A-U and G-C while DNA has dou-
ble stranding with A-T and G-C
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9.
each of the following statements about glycolysis is true except
a. reactants include glucose, NAD, and ATP
b. 2 molecules of ATP are required as reactants
c. net gain is 4 ATP
d. products include pyruvate, NADH, ATP, and H+
net gain is 4 ATP
10.
describe the main difference between lytic and temperate phages
lytic phages replicate within host until it ruptures while tempera-
ture/lysogenic phages primarily re-
main in a non-replicative state with-
in the host
11.
bacteria that have a curved rod mor-
phology are referred to as
vibrio
12.
what associated infection gave rise to quarantining and travel restrictions in 2003
SARS
13.
match each type of agar plate to the corresponding general characteristic
1. multi-purpose media capable of growing a wide variety of microorgan-
isms
2. aka lysogeny broth; it is a multi-pur-
pose media capable of growing a wide variety of microorganisms
3. pale red in color and is both selec-
tive and differential media. the pres-
ence of crystal violet and bile salts in its formulation restricts gram+ bacte-
rial growth
4. this agar is selective for gram+ bacteria and can differentiate between trypticase soy agar--multi-purpose media capable of growing a wide variety of microorganisms
LB agar--aka lysogeny broth; it is a multi-purpose media capable of growing a wide variety of microor-
ganisms
macconkey agar--pale red in color and is both selective and differen-
tial media. the presence of crys-
tal violet and bile salts in its for-
mulation restricts gram+ bacterial growth
mannitol salt agar--this agar is se-
lective for gram+ bacteria and can 3 / 18
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members of the staphylococci family
a. LB agar
b. trypticase soy agar
c. macconkey agar
d. mannitol salt agar
differentiate between members of the staphylococci family
14.
true or false. if the statement is false, change it to make it true.
proteins can function to catalyze bio-
chemical processes and play a role in structure, but they cannot enable movement
false, proteins can function to cat-
alyze biological processes, play a role in structure, and CAN enable movement
15.
match each type of microscopy with the correct description
1. the simplest form of light, or op-
tical, microscopes. light, most often emitted from a standard halogen bulb, enters the microscope from the base and is reflected via mirrors towards the sample
2. use light in the form of UV spectrum
3. can provide detailed images of live cells without staining
4. use of beam electrons (rather than light) to increase its resolution capac-
ity to less than 1nm--that's 200x
5. combines the usefulness of fluores-
cence microscopy with the ability to visualize cells in 3D
6. this microscope reflects light off of the specimen at an angle rather than light passing through the specimen
-bright field microscope--the sim-
plest form of light, or optical, micro-
scopes. light, most often emitted from a standard halogen bulb, en-
ters the microscope from the base and is reflected via mirrors towards the sample
-fluorescence microscope--use light in the form of UV spectrum
-phase contrast microscope--can provide detailed images of live cells without staining
-electron microscope--use of beam electrons (rather than light) to in-
crease its resolution capacity to less than 1nm--that's 200x
-confocal microscope--combines the usefulness of fluorescence mi-
croscopy with the ability to visual-
ize cells in 3D
-dark field microscope--this micro-
scope reflects light off of the spec-
imen at an angle rather than light passing through the specimen
4 / 18
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16.
which of the following reactions is an example of a hydrolase
A + B -> A-B
A-B + H2O -> A-OH + B-H
A- + B -> A + B-
Ab + C -> A + Cb
A-B + H2O -> A-OH + B-H
17.
identify the following disease based upon the physical manifestation
anthrax
18.
which of the following is/are true of Animalia (select all that apply)
a. they can be unicellular or multicel-
lular
b. they are autotrophic
c. they possess the ability to move
d. humans are an example
- they possess the ability to move
- humans are an example
19.
each of the following statements about measles, mumps, and rubella is true except
a. infect CNS (central nervous sys-
tem), leading to temporary or perma-
nent paralysis
b. spread via airborne particles while coughing, sneezing, etc
c. caused by linear, single stranded enveloped RNA virus
d. immunity provided by inoculation with a vaccine
- infect CNS (central nervous sys-
tem), leading to temporary or per-
manent paralysis
20.
true
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true or false. if the statement is false, change it to make it true.
the metabolism of a lipid-derived car-
bon atom will yield more ATP that a molecule of glucose
21.
giemsa staining is used to detect each of the following except
a. neisseria gonorrhea
b. histoplasma
c. chlamydia trachomatis
d. malaria
neisseria gonorrhea
22.
what STD is caused by gram-neg-
ative, diplococci, fastidious bacteria that may result in cardiac and neuro-
logical complications
gonorrhea
23.
which of the following are considered protista? select all that apply
a. yeast
b. algae
c. bacteria
d. amoeba
-algae
-amoeba
24.
true or false: a defining characteristic of protista is the inability of colonies to form
true
25.
the function of the ribosome is (select all that apply)
a. waste disposal via hydrolytic en-
zymes
b. to produce energy (ATP
c. protein synthesis
d. lipid synthesis
-protein synthesis
6 / 18
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e. protein modification and distribu-
tion
26.
identify the following cellular compo-
nents by matching the number with the description
1. nucleus
2. lysosome
3. plasma membrane
4. golgi apparatus
5. rough endoplasmic reticulum
27.
the combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the
cell envelope
28.
the function of the golgi is
protein modification and distribu-
tion
29.
true or false. all multicellular microor-
ganisms classified as animalia are au-
totrophic
false, they are heterotrophic
30.
how many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate
1 ATP
31.
in the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as an alternative energy source
a. carbohydrates
b. nucleic acids
c. lactose
d. fatty acid chains
nucleic acids
32.
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true or false. the B-oxidation pathway is responsible for the anabolism of fat-
ty acid chains
false, the B-oxidation pathway is responsible for the catabolism of fatty acid chains
33.
true or false: chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants
true
34.
the process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following (se-
lect all that apply)
a. CO2
b. H2O
c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
d. NADPH
e. ATP
-ATP
-NADPH
35.
what is one of the main functions of light reactions
similar to the ETC, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP
36.
true or false: dark reactions can occur in the presence of absence of light
true
37.
true or false: following the decoloriza-
tion step of the gram stain, gram- bac-
teria will appear colorless
true
38.
name one substance capable of chem-
ically fixing cells to a slide
paraformaldehyde, ethanol, or methanol
39.
you want to observe the size and shape of a cell. what is the easi-
est staining technique that you can perform? name at least one dye you would use during this process
simple stain. using methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin, or fuschin
40.
you suspect a patient may have TB, once a sample has been obtained, it you would expect to see red cells (TB+) or a blue background (TB-)
8 / 18
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is sent off to the lab for an acid fast stain. if the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide
41.
true or false: if a patient is suspect-
ed of having malaria, a giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform
true
42.
identify what type of electron micro-
scope was used to capture the follow-
ing image and explain your choice
transmission electron microscope (TEM). even at 20nm resolution, subcellular substructures are still visible. the image lacks the outside shell only appearance of SEM
43.
true or false. the purpose of a quad-
rant streak is to expand a bacterial population
false
44.
when performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such as way as to form what
dilution gradient, which contains within it the growth of individual colonies
45.
in what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4
P4
46.
true or false. when performing a dilu-
tion streak a new (or sterilized loop) must be used for each phase
true
47.
the number of phases (3 vs 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes 9 / 18
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through the previous phase (once vs multiple) is acceptable provided what happens
the resulting gradient contains within in the growth of individual colonies
48.
true or false. to restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37C to 25C
true
49.
when given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. which form of media best suits this need? why?
LB media because it is nonselec-
tive and nondifferential
50.
true or false. only directly ingesting the preformed clostridium toxin (nei-
ther the bacteria now its spores) will cause disease in adults
true
51.
true or false. there are currently no cures for tetanus
true
52.
the alpha-toxin perfringolysin is asso-
ciated with which medical condition caused by gram+ anaerobic bacteria
gas gangrene, caused by clostridi-
um perfringens
53.
true or false. pneumonic plague is of-
ten characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes
false. pneumonic plague targets respiratory system while bubonic plague targets the lymph system
54.
true or false. chlamydia is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone
false
55.
true or false. similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body
false
56.
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while traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the variola major or variola minor viruses
no, smallpox was eradicated in 1977
57.
by whom and where was the first polio vaccine developed
jonas salk at university of pitts-
burgh in 1955
58.
a drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit the release of newly produced viral particles. would the drug company target hemagglutin-
in proteins or neuramidase proteins
N proteins because they are direct-
ly involved in the budding and re-
laese of new viral particles while HA proteins are involved in viral attachment and entry into host cell
59.
true or false. the viral capsid of HIV is cone shaped and contains 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24
true
60.
what small (30nm) single stranded, nonenveloped RNA virus targets the CNS, causing potentially catastrophic damage to motor neurons
polio/poliomyelitis
61.
true or false: a defining characteristic of protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers
true
62.
match each of the following diseases with the correct bacterial family
1. legionnaires
2. wound botulism
3. impetigo
4. septicemic plague
-legionnaires--legionella
-wound botulism--clostridium botu-
lism
-impetigo--staph aureus
-septicemic plague--yersina pestis
63.
describe the primary distinction be-
tween prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
eukaryotic cells have a defined, membrane bound nucleus that contains genetic material. prokary-
otic cells don't have a nucleus and 11 / 18
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heir genetic material is instead free floating in the cytoplasm
64.
match each of the following terms with the correct description
1. organotroph
2. phototroph
3. heterotroph
4. lithotroph
organotroph--remove electrons from organic molecules
phototroph--utilize photons
heterotroph--derive carbon from organic molecules
lithotroph--remove electrons from inorganic molecules
65.
a researcher is asked to determine which human pathogen is present in a sample. clinical findings presented in the patient consist of fever, chills, lethargy, and stiff neck. by limiting the nutrients, and varying the degree of pH, what type of media would be ex-
pected to inhibit foreign microbes and ensure the isolated growth of neisse-
ria meningitides
selective media
66.
what are the steps of the viral life cycle
1. attachment--viral proteins attach to receptors on host's membrane
2. entry--virus fuses with host membrane and enters cell
3. uncoating--capsid disassembles
4. replication--viral genome is blue-
print to make copies of itself
5. release--new viral particles are released from host cell
6. new infection--new viral particles infect new hosts
67.
list the 4 nitrogenous bases found in RNA and describe how they pair with one another
adenine (A), uracil (U), cytosine (C), guanine (G)
A-U and G-C
68.
true or false. if the statement is false, change it to make it true.
true
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when grown on blood agar plates, microbes capable of alpha hemoly-
sis present as greenish-brown color colonies due to incomplete (partial) ly-
sis of red blood cells
69.
each of the following statements about the electron transport system is true except
a. the proton motive force drives H+ back through the ATP synthase com-
plex
b. as electrons are passed down a chain of electron acceptors, protons are pumped out of the membrane
c. occurs mainly in the nuclear mem-
brane of the cell
d. the end yield is approximately 34 ATP molecules
occurs mainly in the nuclear mem-
brane of cell
70.
describe the two main characteristics of lysogenic bacteriophage replica-
tion
1. integrated into the host genome but production of viral protein is suppressed
2. exists in a non-replicative state that doesn't kill the host
71.
bacteria that have a round morpholo-
gy are referred to as
coccus
72.
briefly explain why a researcher would use the simple stain technique. how is this technique performed, and what does it identify?
simple staining uses a solution of a positively charged dye (ex. meth-
ylene blue, crystal violet, safranin, fuschin) to bind to and stain the negatively charged membrane of the microorganism. this technique is used to observe size, shape, and arrangement of cells
13 / 18
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73.
true or false. if the statement is false, change it to make it true.
leprosy can move through the blood to other areas including the brain, spine, and kidneys
false. TB is primarily a respiratory infection but once it fully colonizes the lungs, it can move through the blood to other areas including the brain, spine, and kidneys
74.
true or false. if the statement is false, change it to make it true.
lipids are primarily composed of hy-
drophilic hydrocarbons
false, lipids are primarily com-
posed of hydrophobic hydrocar-
bons
75.
you are working with a patient who claims a friend got the Covid-19 infec-
tion from the vaccine. explain why the viral vector vaccine used to prevent the Covid-19 infection cannot transmit the actual infection
the genome in the viral vector only encodes for a spike protein and no the other components of the virus. therefore, new virions or virus par-
ticles can't be made or replicated
76.
which region in a four phase dilution streak contains the highest concen-
tration of a microbial organism? de-
scribe the technique that is used in pulling the sample from one phase to the next
the first phase contains the highest concentration of microbial organ-
isms. using a new sterile loop, pull part of the sample from region 1 to region 2. repeat using a new sterile loop each time through the remaining regions
77.
identify the following disease based upon the physical manifestation
gas gangrene
78.
there has been an outbreak of staph aureus within a local cleaning busi-
a sample showing only color-
less colonies growing on red agar 14 / 18
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ness. the employer is trying to deter-
mine which of two companies has not been using sterile precautions when cleaning. to help determine who is re-
sponsible for unsanitary practices, a researcher streaks the isolated bacte-
rial samples from each company onto MSA agar. after incubating the sam-
ples at 37C overnight, briefly explain how he will interpret the result of his samples
would indicate the presence of nonpathogenic bacteria, while a sample showing a distinct yellow agar would indicate the presence of staph aureus
79.
what STD is caused by a gram- spiro-
chete that can lead to paralysis, blind-
ness, and dementia
syphillis
80.
true or false: a virus is considered a microorganism
false. viruses are microbes not mmiccroorganisms
81.
what is the smallest biological unit of life
cell
82.
at a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what
macromolecules
83.
define catabolism
the process of breaking down larg-
er molecules into useful energy sources
84.
in phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where
membrane
85.
assuming a constant light source power, identify the part of the micro-
scope you would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the micro-
scope
iris
86.
what is agar used for in microbiology
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agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow
87.
identify the medical condition char-
acterized by robust carbohydrate fer-
mentation under anaerobic condi-
tions, swelling of the infected areas and fever
gas gangrene
88.
the envelope surrounds the ___ of some viruses
capsid
89.
rank the following viruses based on their size from largest to smallest
paramyxovirus
polio virus
smallpox virus
1. smallpox
2. paramyxovirus
3. poliovirus
90.
what small single stranded, non en-
veloped RNA virus targets the CNS, causing potentially catastrophic dam-
age to motor neurons
polio
91.
what are the 4 main types of macro-
molecules found in cells
proteins, nucleic acids, polysac-
charides, lipids
92.
define an essential amino acid
th9/20 amino acids that the human body cannot produce so we must consume in from the environment
93.
a defining characteristic of fungi is the presence of chitin in the cell walls. which of the following also contain chitin
mushroom
bacteria
yeast, mold, mushroom
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yeast
mold
94.
which of the following are considered protista
bacteria
amoeba
algae
yeast
amoeba, algae
95.
In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a researcher do during a phase dilution streak?
perform a 3 phase dilution streak or pass the loop through the pre-
vious phase multiple times instead of once
96.
Why does the alpha toxin (per-
fringolysin) produced during an in-
fection of gas gangrene cause cell death?
the toxin perforates the membrane and forms pores in the plasma membrane of the host cell, result-
ing in uncontrolled ion fluxes and eventually cell lysis and death
97.
true or false. chlamydia trachomatis can be grown on an agar plate alone
false
98.
each of the following statements about glycolysis is true except
a. reactants include glucose, NAD, and. ATP
b. 2 molecules of ATP are required as reactants
c. the net gain is 4 ATP
d. products include pyruvate, NADH, ATP, NADH, H+
NET GAIN IS 4 ATP
99.
to observe the movement of microor-
ganisms that are present in a sample of cheek cells obtained on a patient, a wet mount stain is indicated. a small liquid culture containing the microorganism is put on a slide and covered with a slip. the slip protects 17 / 18
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what would yo use and how is it per-
formed
the objective and the sample and holds it in place
100.
folliculitis
pus filled lesions of skin or hair
101.
scalded skin syndrome
Ruptured pustules; treated with Penicillin
102.
impetigo
childhood skin disease near mouth/ nose
103.
conjunctivitis
infection of thin, transparent scleral tissue
104.
opthalmia neonatorum
infection occurs at time of birth
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